Conservatives love finding a black person willing to trash their own people. I give you their latest tool Byron Donalds

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HomerJS

Lifer
Feb 6, 2002
36,282
28,141
136
Interesting. I don’t see anything wrong with your revised statement.

I guess if you assume the implication it could be offensive but if you were to state that you weren't endorsing or condoning such bad acts then you are back to arguing on the merit of the statement.
The implication in my statement is that the Holucost was good for Jewish families and stopping Nazis led to their downfall. BD implied all those so called liberal laws implemented ending Jim Crow caused the downfall of black families.

If would have been easy for BD to claim back in the 1930s black families were stronger because they remained together.

Even if he had said that my response would have been we had a class example of that in Greenwood, part of Tulsa Ok and white people along with the city killed black people, burned down their homes and businesses. As of today survivors and their families have never been compensated.
 
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Moonbeam

Elite Member
Nov 24, 1999
72,685
6,195
126
The implication in my statement is that the Holucost was good for Jewish families and stopping Nazis led to their downfall. BD implied all those so called liberal laws implemented ending Jim Crow caused the downfall of black families.

If would have been easy for BD to claim back in the 1930s black families were stronger because they remained together.

Even if he had said that my response would have been we had a class example of that in Greenwood, part of Tulsa Ok and white people along with the city killed black people, burned down their homes and businesses. As of today survivors and their families have never been compensated.
In my opinion to imply something you have to make the implication clear. In my opinion, again, you did not do that. To say that families were together at some bad time in history does not imply that bad history is being used to justify that history. You are just stating as a fact some statistical data you may have that two things were present simultaneously with no causality necessarily implied. You have to state you are connecting one to the other explicitly. Otherwise you are free to infer what you want but others are free to do the same and to point out also there is nothing to prove your inference over theirs. But logic will tell you, I think, that not to infer what is not specifically implied but is only a personal inference in not as logical as to not make any inference where none was specifically implied. All arguments on the validity of your inference becomes suspect and easily challenged as biased speculation. I think the term conformational bias applies.
 
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