Matthias99
Diamond Member
- Oct 7, 2003
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Originally posted by: Cogman
I just thought about it, and an infinity .000 with a one tagged on the end really does not work, because the zeros are infinit there will never actually be and end for the one to be tagged on to. Anyone following what im saying?
Yes; your intuition is correct, and you can actually work out a proof of .999999... == 1.00000... along these lines. There was a HUGE discussion on this topic while back (maybe ~9-10 months ago?) in HT (and OT), and this was presented as a more mathematical proof (the one where you multiply by 10, subtract, and then divide by 10 is not a "proof", just a demonstration). In the real number system, you cannot have "an infinite number of zeroes followed by a 1", since by definition an infinite number of zeroes cannot have anything after it -- if it did, it wouldn't be infinite.
Long story short: .99999... == 1. It's proved, it's over and done with. Arguing against this is like arguing that sin(pi/2) != 1.0 because you don't think it "should" be.
Long story slightly longer:
When someone says ".99999... repeating", what they *really* mean is:
"The sum as x goes from one to infinity of (9 * 10^-x)" -- that is, .9 + .09 + .009 + .0009 + ...
However, you *cannot* define the ".000000...1" number like this. Try to take 1.0 minus the sum above:
1.0 - (.9 + .09 + .009 + .0009 + ...) = 0.1 - (.09 + .009 + .0009 + ...) = 0.01 - (.009 + .0009 + .00009 + ...)
You can see that this will, as you add an infinite number of terms, become the infamous "infinite number of zeroes followed by a one". However, you can also see here that "1.0 - (sum as x goes from 1 to y of (9 * 10^-x))" = (10^-y). Thus, you can find the value of 1.0 - .99999... by taking the limit of the right-hand side of that equation as y goes to infinity. "The limit as x goes to infinity of (10^-x)" is provably zero, which means 1.0 minus the sum defined above (".99999...") must also equal zero, and therefore ".99999..." must equal one.