Originally posted by: CycloWizard
Originally posted by: Cerpin Taxt
You said, "Thus, neither is a valid scientific hypothesis as neither can be tested to the exclusion of the other." This is simply false for reasons I've already explained. Hypotheses are not invalidated because magic is still real in your world.
I never said that they were invalidated by my statements - I said that they never were valid scientific hypotheses because they cannot be tested. They are theories, which are different from hypotheses. This is the Flying Spaghetti Monster argument: by saying that the FSM causes each individual observation to occur as observed, it explains every data point ever recorded perfectly. Thus, it is a theory that explains the data very well. However, it is not a hypothesis because we cannot test whether the FSM exists. Unfortunately, you cannot see this because you're so blinded by your completely misplaced hatred of me. You don't even know how I feel about this subject, yet you've gone over the top to demonize me based on my simple, absolutely correct, statements because you inferred (incorrectly, I might add) that I was arguing against evolution, science, big bang theory, or anything else. In other words, you are so full of fail that you assumed that I was also failing, despite the complete lack of evidence to support your position.
But only one would be a scientifically valid description.
Why?
No, it isn't "scientifically identical" because it proposes that things popped into existence by magic 10,000 years ago with an unexlainable appearance of age. It is a useless hypothesis, utterly solipsistic and devoid of value.
It's a theory, not a hypothesis. And it is scientifically identical, since it cannot be differentiated from the big bang theory using any known test, since they are mathematically equivalent over the field covered by the 10k theory (i.e. they make identical predictions for all observations in the last 10k years). Thus, the only way to distinguish between them scientifically requires technology that does not currently exist - a time machine to take us back before the 10k theory predicts the beginning. Thus, since both explains all available data equally well, they are scientifically identical. If you claim otherwise, please tell us: how can we experimentally distinguish between the two theories?