- Nov 4, 2000
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I ran into an issue with accounting for goodwill that doesn't quite make sense to me, and I was wondering if someone would be able to explain it a bit further.
The topic at hand has to do with goodwill impairment when one company either wholl-owns or partially-owns a subsidiary. What I don't understand is, why does the goodwill belong to the subsidiary when the subsidiary is wholly-owned, but when only partially-owned the goodwill belongs to the parent company.
To me it seems like this should be the other way around?
Thank you for your input, and hopefully I can understand this issue.
The topic at hand has to do with goodwill impairment when one company either wholl-owns or partially-owns a subsidiary. What I don't understand is, why does the goodwill belong to the subsidiary when the subsidiary is wholly-owned, but when only partially-owned the goodwill belongs to the parent company.
To me it seems like this should be the other way around?
Thank you for your input, and hopefully I can understand this issue.