I got my 2nd Moderna bivalent C-19 vaccination yesterday @ 3PM at CVS, later canceled my backup (which was for tomorrow at Costco). It's almost 18 hours later, I'm feeling pretty good. A bit of sore arm maybe, no fever, sort of tired is all, but I'm functional. Working on my morning coffee, which, of course, helps. Busy day ahead, can't just lie around and sleep.
So, I chatted up the elder probably Chinese pharmacist who administered the shot. I asked him if it was the same as the 1st bivalent Moderna booster and he said it is. He asked me to wait about "3 minutes" while he prepared to give me the shot. Afterwards he says I may be tired tomorrow, some arm soreness. I counter that I've done well on my previous shots (5, so this was the 6th). I mention that the Moderna boosters were 1/2 original dose and he said this one was full dose, = 0.5ml. He explained that the Moderna bivalent is 0.25ml of the original formulation plus 0.25ml of the Omicron formulation to make up 0.5ml total. He mentions that originally the virus tended to attack the lungs but now is upper respiratory and that the drugs now make it unlikely to require hospitalization. I say "Paxlovid," he says yes and that it reduces hospitalization ~70%.
I wonder now if during those 3 minutes he may have drawn from two different vials to get the mixture he'd explained or if it was done previously so he could fill the syringe with one draw! Anyone have a take on that?
Got my first shingles shot a couple days ago. Slight fever the next morning but no big deal. With the CDC lowering the recommended age meant that insurance would cover it.
I have that scheduled in 8 days at Kaiser, my HMO.