It doesn't have to be more robust, it just has to be incremental to Federal law. If the Feds ban something, the state can have a more restrictive ban. If the Feds require access, the State can have more robust access requirements. Just because the Feds have exempted something from a ban does not mean they are requiring access. That's the reason that the dissent did not make the supremacy clause-based argument that you are making.
"More Robust" was your term, and I don't disagree with that. Now it's different, now it's "incremental to"- a very nice backpedal indeed.
This is a distinction without a difference. The irony here is that decisions like Smith resulted in the bipartisan RFRA because Congress wanted to go beyond the religious protections offered by the First Amendment. Of course, the RFRA that was the basis of the recent Hobby Lobby decision which the Left hates.
So tell me Jhhnn, should people get to disregard laws because of their religious beliefs or not? Personally, I don't think so which is how I define neutrality between religions. However, this seems to be the exact opposite of the way that others are defining it.
Smith was about OMFG! DRUGS! so the court did a double back flip into its own rectum to rule against the Evil of drugs, any drugs, drugs where the Court has no idea what they're talking about. It's the same with Gonzales vs Raich. By Scalia's reasoning & your own, the supremacy clause holds only when you want it to.
Hobby Lobby? Please. It's the same maneuver. Providing comprehensive health care coverage to one's employees in no way inhibits the practice of one's religion, unless your religion is to make other people's decisions for them. Should we extend the same protection to employers who are Christian Scientists & others who don't believe in Medicine at all? Or is the ruling about something else, about establishing control over people's sex lives?
So tell me, does the law and those who write it have to make sense, or did Oregon have a legitimate interest in forbidding Peyote use in native American Religion in contravention of Federal regulations? Why should Congress have to intervene after the fact when the truth was there for the Court to see in the first place?