Right. I agree that the two discussions are intertwined in this thread. I don't agree that they can be easily separated, when the result of the trial was a direct result of Apple's patents. So, some people would say "the outcome is absurd because Apple should never have had the patents" in the same way as an undergraduate student will recognize that:
i) If Apple has patents, then it can successfully sue other companies that approximate the patent in any of its products.
ii) Apple has patents that were approximated.
iii) Therefore, Apple successfully sued another company that approximates its patents.
Is a valid argument, but the validity of the argument is not what all courts ought to care about (check the references to Europe). Some legal systems care about how sound the argument in question is, not that it is merely valid.
The two are, on my view, intertwined. And some of the posts in this thread appear to say that the legal system in the USA should have assessed the second argument you refer to as well, in order to check for more than the validity of a basic argument.
Patents are there to protect, yes. But I think you and I would disagree with respect to what they exist to protect. And this point has been covered earlier in the thread. Why do you think that Apple's 'being the first to mass market X' (referring to one of your recent posts in this thread) is sufficient to provide a patent with a legitimate basis? I find that very confusing.
If the goal of a patent system is innovation, and if you're right and the European system is superior, why aren't we all using French phones and reading about the German exploration of Mars ?