How do I know that Valve's cut didn't also include the secret percentage The Illuminati collect for their "world domination" slush fund? I hate to be snarky, but do you realize how ridiculous that sounds? None of what you propose is documented anywhere. It can be confirmed by no one. You're basically proposing a conspiracy theory at this point.
Let me straight up my inquiry. First, I am not clear to which that cut from valve is about. If it is simply digital distribution, then it has nothing to do with MS. I said that because I don't know, not because I know, it was a question. After reading a bit, I don't think valve checks all submissions on infringment of IPs, so I edited the post to ask if your friend check the licensing on libraries that he used. It has nothing to do with Illuminati. The Illuminati part is somehow my original bolded question is ignored, the one you said you don't know what I am asking about. I came back to this point almost every single post, but it seems it was invisible somehow.
I'm going to say this one last time: you're the one making the extraordinary claim. The onus of proof is on you because you're the person who claims status quo is not true. That's the entire basis of the "extraordinary claims" maxim.
I am sure that this is not going to be the last time. My claim is the exact opposite of yours, which I have defined many many post ago. I said, the required license is not free, you said it is. Isn't fair that we both try to get proofs? Or evidence to support this claim? I have no problem searching for evidence for a debate. I have a problem with the "Solid proof or retract" attitude. Tell me you missed that too.
To me, proprietary means it is not free. To you, if it is proprietary to MS that operates upon windows, then it is free after purchasing windows. Am I mistaken? I assume something that is IP of something is not free unless stated otherwise. To you, this is an extraordinary claim. When PhysX doesn't work on AMD cards, while Nvidia said they offered the licensing to AMD, some claimed that "AMD should not need to pay Nvidia for PhysX." Was I mistaken that too? Extraordinary claim?
Suppose "AMD doesn't need to pay to support PhysX" and Nvidia stated that it is open to AMD, why don't AMD support it? This isn't a new question. No one ever pop in and ask for proofs. Why? Illuminati much? Nvidia paid game devs for X. Nvidia paid game devs to block. Nvidia bad bad bad. Where is the proof? Not once I saw the attitude that is now being used upon me.
You do realize what you just quoted proves my point, right? The article specifically notes that only consoles have license fees. (The bit about homebrew is also for consoles; homebrew by definition is software created for closed systems without the approval of the system's guardian)
No, I don't realize that. I explicitly bolded what is important. We both realized that there is an extra charge on consoles which you describe is due to a "close" system. Then you go on with computer is "Open".... Well, that is an assumption. The key bolded words are that indie programmers use homebrew developement libraries, again, new terms, but I don't think directX related libraries are homebrew.