JEDIYoda
Lifer
- Jul 13, 2005
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Originally posted by: Atreus21
Originally posted by: RabidMongoose
Originally posted by: Atreus21
Originally posted by: RabidMongoose
Originally posted by: Atreus21
In theory I would, but not in practice. Trying to indicate whether each couple is individually capable of producing children, and to what extent, is a cost the state cannot and should not afford. Because of the biological impossibility of bearing children, gay marriages are thus very easy to classify in terms of baby-making.
So are the elderly...or certain people who have undergone certain surgeries that make procreation impossible.
Regarding AIDS:
Perhaps it wouldn't prevent the proliferation of AIDS, but do you think the state should sanction an institution in which sex between gay men, which statistically helps AIDS proliferate, is an almost official component?
Then along the same lines, it also statistically helps other STDs proliferate among a heterosexual population.
The governmental response needs to be very narrow.
If the state wishes to undergo all the difficulty in determining to 100% accuracy that a person cannot procreate with one of the opposite sex, then I would have no argument against them if they denied marriage to that person, on that basis.
Well at least you are consistent.
FWIW, surgery is no guarantee. Women have gotten pregnant after having their tubes tied.
I was actually referring more to a person who had major surgery that made procreation completely impossible.
My point with that argument is that the state need make no investigation to determine the possibility of procreation when considering a gay couple.
But there are circumstances with heterosexuals where they cannot physically procreate. Say, for example, someone who had her uterus removed due to cancer. It doesn't require much investigation by the state. Plus, the elderly are another example.
What narrow response would you advocate?
Before you even get to a narrow response, there needs to be an actual governmental interest that can outweigh the personal liberty at stake. I just don't see any reason why the government would need to ban gay marriage to meet any sort of governmental interest. You brought up the AIDS issue, but banning gay marriage doesn't address it at all.
Perhaps I'm missing something, but is there any other reason to ban gay marriage outside of moral reasons - which alone are not sufficient?
I'm back, and good morning.
To me, there are reasons the state should not allow gay marriage, which have no moral component. My argument about procreation still stands, in that propogation of society is a compelling state interest.
I also think it unwise, given the conventional wisdom that a child is typically brought up by a mother and a father, that we encourage a social policy that denies children these developmental necessities.
I don't expect you to agree with them, but there are non-moral arguments on the anti-gay-marriage side.
Your "non" moral arguments are totally wacko!
So you claim that by allowing gay marrages that the propogation of the species will not continue to happen? That`s false and you know it!
You also believe that having a mother and a father are a developemental necessitie?
That`s also false. Many children are brought up by single parents. Many children are brought up by "gay" parents. None of these children coming from these backgrounds have developemental issues.
I really don`t see any basis other than possibly trying to disguise your hatred of "gays" as the reason behind your statements that you cannot back up with facts. I am sure if you search hard enough you can find a blog site or something on the fringes that might support your claims. But you will not find any mainstream non - religious sites that support your assertions!