chuckywang
Lifer
- Jan 12, 2004
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Originally posted by: her209
Why?Originally posted by: chuckywang
No, of course not. her209 needs to rephrase that stat.Originally posted by: InlineFour
Originally posted by: her209
44-0Originally posted by: InlineFour
isn't phil jackson like 33-0 when they lead the series?
so the first loss was game 6?
Of the top of my head:
1) Sonics won 2 in a row in the Finals when the Bulls led 3-0.
2) Jazz won Game 5 to force the Finals back to Utah when the Bulls were leading 3-1.
3) Pacers won Game 6 to force a Game 7 in the Eastern Conference Finals when the Bulls led 3-2.
linkJackson is in search of his 10th championship ring as a coach. He led the Lakers to three titles in his first four years in LA, and guided the Chicago Bulls to six championships. Jackson, who obviously knows what it takes to win the postseason, is 44-0 all-time in postseason series when his team has a lead in any point of the series.
The quote means Jackson was 44-0 in the series when he has a lead, not in the games during those series.
In other words, when Jackson has a lead in the series, he might lose some games, but he eventually wins the series.