DragonMasterAlex
Banned
- Feb 3, 2001
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""The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." "
RESERVED by, not GIVEN TO. HUGE difference.
In either case, the states don't have the right to secede. The PEOPLE have the right to overthrow the government if it becomes oppressive to them, but even then only after a "long and successive train of abuses," not just for one incident. And even at that, Lincoln didn't abuse anyone's freedom; he extended it to include black people. No person can have the right to own another, PERIOD.
Jason
RESERVED by, not GIVEN TO. HUGE difference.
In either case, the states don't have the right to secede. The PEOPLE have the right to overthrow the government if it becomes oppressive to them, but even then only after a "long and successive train of abuses," not just for one incident. And even at that, Lincoln didn't abuse anyone's freedom; he extended it to include black people. No person can have the right to own another, PERIOD.
Jason
Originally posted by: Mayax
No, it's not even debateable. Read the 10th Amendment very closely. It states that any powers not given to the government are given to the states and the people. The government is granted the power to admit states into the union but there is nothing in there that gives the government the power to remove states from the union. By the 10th amendment and default, the power to leave the union belongs to the states entirely. As it is an amendment, it overrides anything to the contrary in the original Constitution.
Also read up on Thomas Jefferson's writings. He wrote the constitution and he was under the impression that the states were free to leave the union whenever they wished.