Why don't you just lay it out for us, and actually debate the point. So far, I am the only one presenting any sort of verifiable facts in this thread. The original point was made, a point was implied as to the interpretation, and I supplied more timely information that shows the exact opposite.
I disputed the point of the original study made by the poster on the basis that he implied that the numbers showed that California somehow paid money to the government, and then received less of it back. I took the position that California never had that money, since it was FEDERALLY taxed from the residents of CA. It went from the taxpayers, to the FEDERAL government, to the STATE government. Every penny is a net gain for CA, as well as every other state. The proportion of those payments that come from residents living within any given state means NOTHING, since the federal government would get the exact same dollar amount regardless of what state those residents lived in. California having a higher concentration of wealthy individuals does not entitle them to a disproportionate share of federal taxes.
If you have a point, go through the data I provided and substantiate it. You haven't been able to break the argument, and no amount of deference on your part will change that.
Your argument on federal taxation is baffling and illogical. California is having a larger amount of money removed from it for federal taxation than other states. Period. Math is math.
You are attempting to take federal taxation data for years in an area deeply affected by the property bust and ensuing economic difficulties. California was affected to a far, far larger degree than Arkansas in both federal revenue payments as well as welfare benefits received. 2010 is not representative of normal economic times, and therefore it's a bad year to use.
There's a reason why people don't try to draw large tax policy conclusions from the last couple years' data. Maybe you are now learning this lesson.