Intel gave Dell 6 Billion dollars not use AMD chips?

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SunSamurai

Diamond Member
Jan 16, 2005
3,914
0
0
Meh. My signings are always cleared by legal so I'm good and I always sign as a agent of the company and am not subject to the same rules as an officer. See I know the difference because of personal experience. Now it does get dicey when you're a director but even then you're acting as an agent so I'm covered.

Basically you have no idea what you are talking about nor do you have any first hand knowledge in such matters. I do.

Obviously you DONT because you think you're talking about the same thing. Many people are pointing out that it not the same, and its zooming right over your head.

You also dont work for a monopoly DO YOU?

Get a brain man.
 

13Gigatons

Diamond Member
Apr 19, 2005
7,461
500
126
This would all be nice if AMD was going to get a couple of billion out of the deal but only the government will receive the fine.
 

TallBill

Lifer
Apr 29, 2001
46,044
62
91
Add me as well, because i'm going to say, you're an idiot. Only monopolies that are good for consumers are natural monopolies and those should be regulated up the ass by the government.

Happily added. I don't go into P&N for a reason. I prefer to not put actual thought into forum posts, and I sure as fuck don't care what other people think.
 

Colt45

Lifer
Apr 18, 2001
19,721
1
0
Jesus, I can't believe there are people defending intel here.

Some of you dudes must be from some fantasy planet, with benevolent monopolies.
 

BreastInspector

Senior member
Aug 15, 2009
308
0
76
Jesus, I can't believe there are people defending intel here.

Some of you dudes must be from some fantasy planet, with benevolent monopolies.

Dear Clueless Computer Nerd, and everyone else in this thread who is clearly against capitalism.

Intel giving dell a rebate to be their exclusive customer is nothing new. It would be just like AT&T giving a rebate to Apple for being the exclusive carrier of the iPhone. Of course, none of you who have their own business understand that.

The bottom line is that when you are someone's largest customer, there are perks. Dell used their purchasing power to get a better deal with Intel, just as GM used to use their purchasing power to get the best price from US Steel.

The case is basically antitrust saying that Intel is using measures to shut out AMD, and although that may be the case they're not actively soliciting AMD customers and saying "Hey, buy all your chips from us and us only and we can make it very profitable for you". It's not against the law to give preferential treatment to your biggest customer.

Anyone who says otherwise wouldn't last a day in the real world.
 

sandorski

No Lifer
Oct 10, 1999
70,128
5,657
126
Dear Clueless Computer Nerd, and everyone else in this thread who is clearly against capitalism.

Intel giving dell a rebate to be their exclusive customer is nothing new. It would be just like AT&T giving a rebate to Apple for being the exclusive carrier of the iPhone. Of course, none of you who have their own business understand that.

The bottom line is that when you are someone's largest customer, there are perks. Dell used their purchasing power to get a better deal with Intel, just as GM used to use their purchasing power to get the best price from US Steel.

The case is basically antitrust saying that Intel is using measures to shut out AMD, and although that may be the case they're not actively soliciting AMD customers and saying "Hey, buy all your chips from us and us only and we can make it very profitable for you". It's not against the law to give preferential treatment to your biggest customer.

Anyone who says otherwise wouldn't last a day in the real world.

Ahh ya, you shouldn't be accusing anyone about "cluelessness".

If Dell was Paying Intel, then your little AT&T/Apple comparison might have merit. However, given the difference of Reality between the 2, you just undermined any point you thought you had.

Dell(Buyer)/Intel(Seller)
AT&T(Buyer)/Apple(Seller)

Intel(Seller) Pays Dell(Buyer) for exclusivity
AT&T(Buyer) Pays Apple(Seller) for exclusivity

You may notice a subtle difference there. Then you may not.
 

Acanthus

Lifer
Aug 28, 2001
19,915
2
76
ostif.org
how does a NY attorney general get involved in a case from two companies that are based completely in the other side of the continent?

wow, someone wants to be governor/president.

NY also has a vested interest in AMD. (or should i say Foundry)

There is a fab in construction there now.
 

frostedflakes

Diamond Member
Mar 1, 2005
7,925
1
81
One question to the people defending Intel. If the company did nothing wrong, why all the secrecy about this rebate program? Why destroy evidence and try to eliminate a paper trail? If there's nothing wrong with this, why hide it?
 

amdskip

Lifer
Jan 6, 2001
22,530
13
81
Time to upgrade my computer. I was going to go intel this time but not after reading this. I'll keep on supporting AMD instead of shady intel.
 

Phokus

Lifer
Nov 20, 1999
22,995
776
126
Dear Clueless Computer Nerd, and everyone else in this thread who is clearly against capitalism.

Intel giving dell a rebate to be their exclusive customer is nothing new. It would be just like AT&T giving a rebate to Apple for being the exclusive carrier of the iPhone. Of course, none of you who have their own business understand that.

The bottom line is that when you are someone's largest customer, there are perks. Dell used their purchasing power to get a better deal with Intel, just as GM used to use their purchasing power to get the best price from US Steel.

The case is basically antitrust saying that Intel is using measures to shut out AMD, and although that may be the case they're not actively soliciting AMD customers and saying "Hey, buy all your chips from us and us only and we can make it very profitable for you". It's not against the law to give preferential treatment to your biggest customer.

Anyone who says otherwise wouldn't last a day in the real world.

Except the with AT&T and the Iphone there's no monopoly involved. WORST ANALOGY EVER.
 

SunSamurai

Diamond Member
Jan 16, 2005
3,914
0
0
Happily added. I don't go into P&N for a reason. I prefer to not put actual thought into forum posts, and I sure as fuck don't care what other people think.

You seriously sound like youre 12 having a hissyfit. If you dont care what people think, stfu about it. :hmm:
 

Train

Lifer
Jun 22, 2000
13,863
68
91
www.bing.com
Except the with AT&T and the Iphone there's no monopoly involved. WORST ANALOGY EVER.

I've asked twice so far in this thread and still no reply yet all the people I've asked are still actively posting in here. I'll ask a third time.

At what point does it become a monopoly? Is it even defined? Is it LEGALLY defined? Obviously 100% of market share is a monopoly. Ok, but what about 95%? 85%? what abot 51%? At what point, EXACTLY, do the rules a company has to play by, change?
 

Gothgar

Lifer
Sep 1, 2004
13,463
1
0
Ahh ya, you shouldn't be accusing anyone about "cluelessness".

If Dell was Paying Intel, then your little AT&T/Apple comparison might have merit. However, given the difference of Reality between the 2, you just undermined any point you thought you had.

Dell(Buyer)/Intel(Seller)
AT&T(Buyer)/Apple(Seller)

Intel(Seller) Pays Dell(Buyer) for exclusivity
AT&T(Buyer) Pays Apple(Seller) for exclusivity

You may notice a subtle difference there. Then you may not.

Is the difference that in the second example one of the entities is a fruit?
 

Cogman

Lifer
Sep 19, 2000
10,278
126
106
Back in 2002, i'd agree, but once conroe came out, AMD lost it all.

But I can see how if these incentives were true, why INTEL had more money for development then AMD did.
Even if intel did nothing, they would have had more money for development then AMD. This question is how much more did they make if this is true.
 

Vette73

Lifer
Jul 5, 2000
21,503
8
0
I've asked twice so far in this thread and still no reply yet all the people I've asked are still actively posting in here. I'll ask a third time.

At what point does it become a monopoly? Is it even defined? Is it LEGALLY defined? Obviously 100% of market share is a monopoly. Ok, but what about 95%? 85%? what abot 51%? At what point, EXACTLY, do the rules a company has to play by, change?


It is not a set percent but when someone has control over a market and can control it to the extent of causing harm and/or barriers to others in that field.

Intel in this case has such command they could make due harm to not only others that use their product but also others that make a similar product.
 

GlacierFreeze

Golden Member
May 23, 2005
1,125
1
0
I've asked twice so far in this thread and still no reply yet all the people I've asked are still actively posting in here. I'll ask a third time.

At what point does it become a monopoly? Is it even defined? Is it LEGALLY defined? Obviously 100% of market share is a monopoly. Ok, but what about 95%? 85%? what abot 51%? At what point, EXACTLY, do the rules a company has to play by, change?

A company doesn't have to hold any certain % market share to be considered a monopoly, because many other business related factors are involved. It is usually "high," but has not set numerical value. Your question is now answered.
 
Last edited:

her209

No Lifer
Oct 11, 2000
56,352
11
0
I've asked twice so far in this thread and still no reply yet all the people I've asked are still actively posting in here. I'll ask a third time.

At what point does it become a monopoly? Is it even defined? Is it LEGALLY defined? Obviously 100% of market share is a monopoly. Ok, but what about 95%? 85%? what abot 51%? At what point, EXACTLY, do the rules a company has to play by, change?
I don't think there is any set market percentage that triggers to determine when there is a monopoly. Rather, its about how the company (or in the case of a duopoly, companies) uses its market share to influence the overall market.
 

Train

Lifer
Jun 22, 2000
13,863
68
91
www.bing.com
I don't think there is any set market percentage that triggers to determine when there is a monopoly. Rather, its about how the company (or in the case of a duopoly, companies) uses its market share to influence the overall market.

So how do you determine what's enforceable in court? Are you saying theres no legal definition for it at all?

Is it when there are two suppliers? Because Coke and Pepsi combined are about 99.99% of the worlds beverage industry, and they both do exclusive deals at large venues all the time. Is that legally defined as well?
 
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