Originally posted by: SilentRunning
Originally posted by: bleeb
Please don't let this thread die!
It was dead before it ever started
Bleeb, is this the only email you get
Originally posted by: SilentRunning
It is all your fault
and.....
SilentRunning is a caveman with a loaded weapon, he has sufficient knowledge of math to make himself dangerous, unfortunately he does not have the depth of understanding he believes himself to have.
--RossGr
Don't assume malice for what stupidity can explain.
Those two tag lines go together so well. RossGr likes his verbal attacks.
Originally posted by: hdeck
*not wasting my time reading through the previous 500 posts*
1 is a rational number. 0.999... is not. therefore they are not equal.
Originally posted by: james88
not reading the 500 post
I say 1 is = 0.9999...
base on this prove( I sure someone wrote this prove already because it is so common)
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 =1
or
.333... + .3333... +.333.. =.999...
1/3 = .333...
therefore .999.. = 1.
Originally posted by: Shimmishim
Originally posted by: james88
not reading the 500 post
I say 1 is = 0.9999...
base on this prove( I sure someone wrote this prove already because it is so common)
1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 =1
or
.333... + .3333... +.333.. =.999...
1/3 = .333...
therefore .999.. = 1.
I have to agree here....
but the question is.... what is .99999 repeating as a fraction... cuz it can't be 3/3....
so maybe they're not equal... ARGH... I HATE MATH!!!
you can't multiply finite numbers by infinite numbers because that's where your dead.
Finite x infinite = illogical - that is your problem. These type of problems were delt with in my math 351 class- Advanced number systems and logic.
Originally posted by: MadRat
That same proof RossGr had to edit when SilentRunning, the modest mathematician, showed him his gaff.
Originally posted by: silverpig
x = y/y - 1/y
x = 1 - 1/y
Now, you can't exactly do the math by treating infinity as a number, but you can let z = f(y) = 1/y and let u = lim (y->inf) z. Then you have:
x = 1 - f(y)
x = 1 - z
x = 1 - lim(y->inf) z
x = 1 - 0
x = 1
That same proof RossGr had to edit when SilentRunning, the modest mathematician, showed him his gaff.
Originally posted by: silverpig
x = y/y - 1/y
x = 1 - 1/y
Now, you can't exactly do the math by treating infinity as a number, but you can let z = f(y) = 1/y and let u = lim (y->inf) z. Then you have:
x = 1 - f(y)
x = 1 - z
x = 1 - lim(y->inf) z
x = 1 - 0
x = 1
Originally posted by: VFAA
Here's an example:
99.99% of the time 0.999 = 1.0
Hey, even 0.95 is rounded up to 1.0