Is one over infinity zero?

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txrandom

Diamond Member
Aug 15, 2004
3,773
0
71
Originally posted by: JohnCU
for all intents and purposes it is 0, atleast that's what we call it in my major. f the math people.

Yah, that's what Calculus 2 for Engineers taught me. May be different in the other Calculus 2s.
 

jman19

Lifer
Nov 3, 2000
11,220
654
126
Originally posted by: JohnCU
for all intents and purposes it is 0, atleast that's what we call it in my major. f the math people.

no math people would mean no engineering people
 

dullard

Elite Member
May 21, 2001
25,488
3,981
126
The answer is yes. For all practical purposes, it is equal to zero.
 

sao123

Lifer
May 27, 2002
12,650
203
106
Originally posted by: fitzov
One over infinity doesn't make any sense, mathematically.


One over infinity only makes sense if
by one you actually meant Seven, and didnt finish the top correctly. 1 -> 7
and by over, you mean "on top of"
and by infinity, you mean "me", then in this context your statement might make sense.
 

mercanucaribe

Banned
Oct 20, 2004
9,763
1
0
Originally posted by: magomago
Originally posted by: UncleWai
The limit of 1/x as x approaches infinity is 0.
It never reaches zero, the bound is zero.

Its practically zero. make it .00000000000000000000000000000000000000000001 there will be no real world difference.

This is what sets apart engineers from scientists...

.9999999repeating + 1/infinity = 1 right?

If you say that .99999repeating is 1, then how can you say that 1/infinity approaches 0 instead of saying that it IS 0?
 

fitzov

Platinum Member
Jan 3, 2004
2,477
0
0
If you say that .99999repeating is 1, then how can you say that 1/infinity approaches 0 instead of saying that it IS 0?

I think someone else answered that question in discussing limits--so I'll not repeat it.
 
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