It's official, she's a her

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AndroidVageta

Banned
Mar 22, 2008
2,421
0
0
HOLY SHIT PEOPLE. He has TESTICLES! THATS IT, END OF STORY. THAT IS NOT A WOMAN.

QUOTED FOR MOTHER FUCKING TRUTH!!!

I dont CARE if someone can have ovaries and a penis or a vagina and some nuts...SHE/IT/HE HAS BALLS...NOT A FUCKING FEMALE ... MIGHT have female parts but that doesnt make it a WOMAN...its a it exactly.
 

Dumac

Diamond Member
Dec 31, 2005
9,391
1
0
QUOTED FOR MOTHER FUCKING TRUTH!!!

I dont CARE if someone can have ovaries and a penis or a vagina and some nuts...SHE/IT/HE HAS BALLS...NOT A FUCKING FEMALE ... MIGHT have female parts but that doesnt make it a WOMAN...its a it exactly.

So, in your opinion, why is male the tainting sex?

For example, why is it not that men have to be pure, and if they have even a shred of female genitalia, they instantly become a woman? (the opposite of your scenario)
 

a123456

Senior member
Oct 26, 2006
885
0
0
So, in your opinion, why is male the tainting sex?

For example, why is it not that men have to be pure, and if they have even a shred of female genitalia, they instantly become a woman? (the opposite of your scenario)

Because in track and field and other sports, the mens division is the "open" division. Either sex can compete there if he or she really wanted to. See Michelle Wie and Annika trying for the PGA. It just doesn't happen very often because the max performance at the world record level is held by a male athlete.

By the way, all humans start with undescended testes. Just over the last few months, the testes turn into ovaries for the girls and descend for the guys. It's just the problem that when they don't do anything where things get confused. You could theoretically call them undeveloped ovaries that didn't do much.
 

AreaCode707

Lifer
Sep 21, 2001
18,440
101
91
they aren't terriably useful unless they wet nurse or provide child care. Hence why they are often relegated to subserviant roles as omega females in the most cultures.

You are escalating up my "why don't they just fvcking ban him already" list REALLY fast.
 

spaceman

Lifer
Dec 4, 2000
17,602
166
106
with all the physio experts on here
yet non can say where the pecker fits into all this












ugh
 

AreaCode707

Lifer
Sep 21, 2001
18,440
101
91
HOLY SHIT PEOPLE. He has TESTICLES! THATS IT, END OF STORY. THAT IS NOT A WOMAN.

No, she was BORN with both sets of genitals and there isn't a lot of additional detail there. Typical medical procedure involves surgical removing one set of bits and hormone treatment (which it looks like she's received, given her physical development) to ensure proper growth and puberty.

You don't have to sleep with her so this impacts your life very little. Take the drama down a notch.
 

AndroidVageta

Banned
Mar 22, 2008
2,421
0
0
So, in your opinion, why is male the tainting sex?

For example, why is it not that men have to be pure, and if they have even a shred of female genitalia, they instantly become a woman? (the opposite of your scenario)

No but in a case like this where she obviously has the upper hand due to manliness there is a problem with that. I dont give a shit what she/he is, but I do have a problem with competing against REAL 100% FEMALES in the womens section of the Olympics.

And just because a womans ovaries are broke and she cant have children doesnt make her less of a woman, but when said "woman" has nuts and is confusing to determine sex even when tested, then yes, definitely not a woman...but something inbetween and therefor should not be allowed to compete with WOMEN.
 

amdhunter

Lifer
May 19, 2003
23,324
219
106
So, in this hypothetical world, if it turned Arnold Schwarzenegger actually had functioning ovaries hidden inside him, he would be a woman?

And it turned out Megan Fox actually had testicles inside her? She would be a man (and all of you guys on ATOT would be gay)?

EDIT: or what if someone had both testicles and ovaries?

If he had Ovaries and no testicles -- yes. And chances are he would have never gotten as big as he was...even with steroids.
 

a123456

Senior member
Oct 26, 2006
885
0
0
No but in a case like this where she obviously has the upper hand due to manliness there is a problem with that. I dont give a shit what she/he is, but I do have a problem with competing against REAL 100% FEMALES in the womens section of the Olympics.

And just because a womans ovaries are broke and she cant have children doesnt make her less of a woman, but when said "woman" has nuts and is confusing to determine sex even when tested, then yes, definitely not a woman...but something inbetween and therefor should not be allowed to compete with WOMEN.

Internal or external organs generally don't really matter that much in terms of improved athletic performance. Sure, it matters a big deal if you're having a relationship but in terms of sports, the only thing they really care about in the end is hormone levels, since those affect performance greatly. Guys who lose their external reproductive organs in an accident or women who lose their uterus and/or ovaries from cancer don't suddenly change sex.

In this case, after medical treatment, she's back to the normal range. You guys do realize that even transgender women (born a complete male) are allowed to compete in the Olympics as a female athlete, if they have the proper surgery and their hormones are tested to be within range. It's really not that different from this case so her competing again after some medical attention isn't a surprise at all.
 

amdhunter

Lifer
May 19, 2003
23,324
219
106
No, she was BORN with both sets of genitals and there isn't a lot of additional detail there. Typical medical procedure involves surgical removing one set of bits and hormone treatment (which it looks like she's received, given her physical development) to ensure proper growth and puberty.

You don't have to sleep with her so this impacts your life very little. Take the drama down a notch.

Who cares if he has both bits? That's just skin. He lacks a uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries...etc.

Skin does not make gender.
 

HumblePie

Lifer
Oct 30, 2000
14,667
440
126
I thought the determination was done through chromosome testing?

Male = XY
Female = XX


The problem is those aberrant with wierd setups. Such as XXY and XXXY.

The thing is, any person with any sort of Y in the chromosome makeup SHOULD be determined as male. End of story. By strict definition of scientific classification, a person with an Y chromosome at all is male, no matter what the make up of the other chromosomal pattern is for humans. Chances are this person is an XXY and is partially andro immune. Meaning they put out testosterone but must of it is ignore by the body, but not all of it. There are quite a few cases of people being fully immune and are strictly males with the female body. They are XY chromosome, but their bodies are immune to all effects of andro and testosterone and other male hormones. As such, their bodies never responded to the stimuli to turn them into males. However, the hormone is still produced and they are sterile females because of it. They have the 100% body of a female, but are sceintifically males because of the chromosome make up.


Personally, I think any body with an Y chromosome, and that produces male level hormones, and their body responds to said hormones in any amount should not be allowed to compete as a female. They are not females scientifically speaking.

*editted for mixing my X and Y. At least I didn't try to use a Z or something.
 
Last edited:

kami333

Diamond Member
Dec 12, 2001
5,110
2
76
I thought the determination was done through chromosome testing?

Male = XY
Female = YY


The problem is those aberrant with wierd setups. Such as XYY and XYYY.

The thing is, any person with any sort of X in the chromosome makeup SHOULD be determined as male. End of story. By strict definition of scientific classification, a person with an X chromosome at all is male, no matter what the make up of the other chromosomal pattern is for humans. Chances are this person is an XYY and is partially andro immune. Meaning they put out testosterone but must of it is ignore by the body, but not all of it. There are quite a few cases of people being fully immune and are strictly males with the female body. They are XY chromosome, but their bodies are immune to all effects of andro and testosterone and other male hormones. As such, their bodies never responded to the stimuli to turn them into males. However, the hormone is still produced and they are sterile females because of it. They have the 100% body of a female, but are sceintifically males because of the chromosome make up.


Personally, I think any body with an X chromosome, and that produces male level hormones, and their body responds to said hormones in any amount should not be allowed to compete as a female. They are not females scientifically speaking.

Almost:

XX = female
XY = male

However, you can still have a XX male.
 

Drako

Lifer
Jun 9, 2007
10,706
161
106
Almost:

XX = female
XY = male

However, you can still have a XX male.

I thought the Olympics used the SRY gene to determine gender? If you have the SRY gene, you cannot compete as a female.

In other words, you can have a Y chromosome, but it can be missing the SRY gene, and you can still compete as a female.
 
Last edited:

kami333

Diamond Member
Dec 12, 2001
5,110
2
76
I thought the Olympics used the SRY gene to determine gender? If you have the SRY gene, you cannot compete as a female.

In other words, you can have a Y chromosome, but it can be missing the SRY gene, and you can still compete as a female.

I agree, I don't know what their testing protocols are but classification based on the SRY gene would probably make the most sense.

In which case I wonder how many "female" atheletes would be disqualified, I think SRY crossover happens in something like 1 in 25000 individuals.
 

a123456

Senior member
Oct 26, 2006
885
0
0
Personally, I think any body with an Y chromosome, and that produces male level hormones, and their body responds to said hormones in any amount should not be allowed to compete as a female. They are not females scientifically speaking.

Completely valid viewpoint, but there's the matter of scale. All normal working humans produce testosterone and respond to it, just that males produce more of it than females for the most part. You could have some tumor producing a ton of testosterone and be XX.

I thought the Olympics used the SRY gene to determine gender? If you have the SRY gene, you cannot compete as a female.

In other words, you can have a Y chromosome, but it can be missing the SRY gene, and you can still compete as a female.

Definitely not this. There were 8 athletes in 1996 Atlanta that got flagged for having SRY, but they were cleared to go after further investigation, probably because they ended up having AIS or some similar malady.

Anyway, the whole thing's going to be moot. She's going to suck at running now. Athletes who get a ton of extra testosterone early in life and then get it scaled back are terrible.

Males tend to have heavier bones than females from the hormones to compensate for the extra muscle. So, if she gets normalized, that heavier skeleton with the fewer, female muscles is going to kill her running times to the point where she might not even make the team anymore.

If you really want to cheat, you would do the reverse, in adding more testosterone later in life after the lighter, female bones are already formed, kind of like how the East Germans did it back in the steroid era. It also does wonders for the appearance. Google up some of them and the external looks are much more strongly masculine than what you see here. I think at least one of them ended up just doing a sex change to live as a male since it was a lost cause to live any other way.
 

RapidSnail

Diamond Member
Apr 28, 2006
4,258
0
0
So, in this hypothetical world, if it turned Arnold Schwarzenegger actually had functioning ovaries hidden inside him, he would be a woman?

And it turned out Megan Fox actually had testicles inside her? She would be a man (and all of you guys on ATOT would be gay)?

EDIT: or what if someone had both testicles and ovaries?
If Arnold had ovaries he would never have seen the spotlight. If Fox had testicles, she wouldn't have sex appeal.

Also, if the current Megan Fox did actually have testicles and no one knew, how could anyone be gay for not being privy?
 

classy

Lifer
Oct 12, 1999
15,219
1
81
I don't know what her medical condition may be, but I thought it was lame they way they treated her. She has run all her life as a woman, because she blows everyone away, they treated her like that. I didn't like them testing her and she doesn't know it. It was kinda foul.
 

MAKENITO

Diamond Member
Aug 21, 2009
3,864
0
0
I don't know what her medical condition may be, but I thought it was lame they way they treated her. She has run all her life as a woman, because she blows everyone away, they treated her like that. I didn't like them testing her and she doesn't know it. It was kinda foul.

I thought the same.

Basterds.
 

coloumb

Diamond Member
Oct 9, 1999
4,096
0
81
So is Lady Gaga from the same gene pool as all of the other "manly" looking women? [yes..I had to say it because of the rumors about him..er..her...er..lada "it"]
 

coreyb

Platinum Member
Aug 12, 2007
2,437
1
0
if you have balls and the testosterone levels of a male...how are you a woman again?
 
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