Kind of a wild day for SCOTUS

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K1052

Elite Member
Aug 21, 2003
46,791
34,712
136
And now...the census question gets punted down to a lower court? So...citizenship question is blocked...for now.

From a practical standpoint the census has to be printed and most people seem to think that the government won't be able to make a timely argument that would satisfy a court. Though if they had a better argument available you'd think they would have utilized it in front of SCOTUS...
 

Sunburn74

Diamond Member
Oct 5, 2009
5,034
2,613
136
It's based on the constitution, not a federal law. In order to add qualifiers we would need to amend the constitution. The only qualifiers the federal government has ever successfully added that I'm aware of were based on race and that's because of the 14th amendment. Any attempt to add qualifiers federally here would be struck down by SCOTUS I'm almost certain.
The Constitution specifies that districts have to be the same size?
 

Sunburn74

Diamond Member
Oct 5, 2009
5,034
2,613
136
Already cited one; Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. 15th amendment and other constitutional authorities already provide the power to address this, refer to "The Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation." I suppose you could argue that Congress couldn't take the ultimate power to perform redistricting from the states, but they can and have put limits on how it can be done.
I think so because federal election law and funding is at stake. It's hard to say the feds don't have any say in voting when they are funding it.
 
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fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
Already cited one; Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. 15th amendment and other constitutional authorities already provide the power to address this, refer to "The Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation." I suppose you could argue that Congress couldn't take the ultimate power to perform redistricting from the states, but they can and have put limits on how it can be done.

The constitution does explicitly authorize those limits on redistricting but there's no mention of partisanship there and I'm very confident SCOTUS would strike it down.
 

K1052

Elite Member
Aug 21, 2003
46,791
34,712
136
Already cited one; Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. 15th amendment and other constitutional authorities already provide the power to address this, refer to "The Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation." I suppose you could argue that Congress couldn't take the ultimate power to perform redistricting from the states, but they can and have put limits on how it can be done.

Which a conservative Supreme Court will toss right in the garbage. Outside of a liberal court or an amendment to the constitution I don't see a remedy likely to survive review.
 

UNCjigga

Lifer
Dec 12, 2000
24,840
9,082
136
The silver lining I'm looking for re: gerrymandering in NC--that the Hofeller files could be used as new evidence to argue that Republicans lied about not using racial data when drawing new districts in 2016/2017 and therefore the case should be reopened as an unconstitutional *racial* gerrymander (still illegal) and not partisan.
 

fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
The Constitution specifies that districts have to be the same size?

Yes, SCOTUS has interpreted it to say as much. It's not due to federal law, and if Congress passed a federal law saying districts didn't have to have equal populations it would be struck down.
 

herm0016

Diamond Member
Feb 26, 2005
8,420
1,047
126
It's based on the constitution, not a federal law. In order to add qualifiers we would need to amend the constitution. The only qualifiers the federal government has ever successfully added that I'm aware of were based on race and that's because of the 14th amendment. Any attempt to add qualifiers federally here would be struck down by SCOTUS I'm almost certain.

that has nothing to do with this and you are just crying chicken little. they did not say anything about adding federal law, if congress made some law and passed it about redistricting and attached reasons to the 14th and equal protection, and wrote it to be enforceable, they would uphold it.

it always amazes me that people forgot how all this works when these decisions come out. Congress and states can make laws. the court decides, once in a while, essentially, that the law was well considered and written, or not.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
Yes, SCOTUS has interpreted it to say as much. It's not due to federal law, and if Congress passed a federal law saying districts didn't have to have equal populations it would be struck down.

Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.

My understanding is the Apportionment clause phrase "according to their respective numbers" is generally accepted to mean that districts need to be equal in size with some allowances made for the technical constraints of accuracy. It doesn't qualify whom those "equal numbers" should comprise of for simple purposes of fairness and gerrrymandering doesn't on its face violate the "equal numbers" rule.
 

fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.

My understanding is the Apportionment clause phrase "according to their respective numbers" is generally accepted to mean that districts need to be equal in size with some allowances made for the technical constraints of accuracy. It doesn't qualify whom those "equal numbers" should comprise of for simple purposes of fairness and gerrrymandering doesn't on its face violate the "equal numbers" rule.

Right, it doesn't violate the equal numbers rule but it violates the 'one man one vote' principle that SCOTUS has always embraced. It is irrelevant if each person can cast a vote if the government has rigged the elections so that vote effectively no longer matters as to who controls the government.
 

fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
One bright spot about all this is that in regards to the census question conservatives are reaping exactly what they sowed when it comes to Trump. The opinion basically said 'this is such an obviously corrupt lie that we can't let this go'. Had Republicans simply voted for a more competent and less lazy president they 100% could have come up with a credible lie on this that SCOTUS would have blessed.

They lost entirely because Trump is a moron. lol.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
Right, it doesn't violate the equal numbers rule but it violates the 'one man one vote' principle that SCOTUS has always embraced. It is irrelevant if each person can cast a vote if the government has rigged the elections so that vote effectively no longer matters as to who controls the government.

Which again is why I said it should be fixed via new federal law. I know it's frustrating when SCOTUS seems like they're dodging the question when the Constitution or federal law doesn't speak to a subject, but the alternative is worse. For example, the constitution doesn't really give guidance for what the 5th amendment phrase "public use" means in the clause "nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." Instead of punting on the issue (properly) so that federal law could be enhanced to define it, instead the SCOTUS decided for all of us to become super-legislators and write the law themselves for what "public use" meant with their atrocious Kelo v. City of New London decision. We're all worse off because of it since the ruling essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law. If the case of gerrymandering, they could have likewise decided to become wanna-be legislators and decided for us all what the law should be - I'm guessing you would have been a lot more unhappy if the "law" they created from whole cloth contained a lot of provisions you dislike.
 
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fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
Which again is why I said it should be fixed via new federal law. I know it's frustrating when SCOTUS seems like they're dodging the question when the Constitution or federal law doesn't speak to a subject, but the alternative is worse. For example, the constitution doesn't really give guidance for what the 5th amendment phrase "public use" means in the clause "nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." Instead of punting on the issue (properly) so that federal law could be enhanced to define it, instead the SCOTUS decided for all of us to become super-legislators and write the law themselves for what "public use" meant with their atrocious Kelo v. City of New London decision. We're all worse off because of it since the ruling essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law. If the case of gerrymandering, they could have likewise decided to become wanna-be legislators and decided for us all what the law should be - I'm guessing you would have been a lot more unhappy if the "law" they created from whole cloth contained a lot of provisions you dislike.

Right, and what I’m saying is that SCOTUS would rule any federal attempt to stop partisan gerrymandering unconstitutional.

They decided that one person one vote no longer matters and the federal government has no authority to intervene in partisan gerrymanders if one person one vote doesn’t matter.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
Right, and what I’m saying is that SCOTUS would rule any federal attempt to stop partisan gerrymandering unconstitutional.

They decided that one person one vote no longer matters and the federal government has no authority to intervene in partisan gerrymanders if one person one vote doesn’t matter.

I disagree that "one person, one vote" requires the voter to be placed into a specific district. That completely distorts the meaning of the phrase into something which makes it non-sensical. You're conflating fairness of the process (which is a goal we should aim for, and why I support new federal laws to stomp out gerrymandering) with lack of access to voting.

I also highly disagree with SCOTUS overturning new laws to stop partisan gerrymandering. They already have specific constitutional powers under the 15th amendment and other places to enact needed legislation related to voting. I suppose theoretically if you had a state with 100% of one race population and not even a single person of another race then the 15th Amendment wouldn't apply, but that's not realistic. In any real-life scenario anti-gerrymandering can be directly supported with federal legislation.
 

fskimospy

Elite Member
Mar 10, 2006
84,754
49,399
136
I disagree that "one person, one vote" requires the voter to be placed into a specific district. That completely distorts the meaning of the phrase into something which makes it non-sensical. You're conflating fairness of the process (which is a goal we should aim for, and why I support new federal laws to stomp out gerrymandering) with lack of access to voting.

I’m not, I’m saying the principle of one person one vote is violated when it is rendered effectively impossible for that vote to achieve its desired outcome.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
I’m not, I’m saying the principle of one person one vote is violated when it is rendered effectively impossible for that vote to achieve its desired outcome.

You realize this only exists because SCOTUS interpreted ambiguous constitutional language to establish the principle?

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/one-person_one-vote_rule

Again, wanting SCOTUS to give you a desirable policy outcome when the Constitution and federal law is silent on it is a very dangerous game none of us should play. For every "positive outcome" when SCOTUS makes shit up like Roe v. Wade, there's plenty when the shit they make up is terrible like Kelo v. New London or Bush v. Gore. Do you really want MORE of the SCOTUS making law instead of Congress? Hell, Congress already effectively delegates lawmaking to executive agencies as it is; 99% of what gets decided in rulemaking process could have and should have been codified into the law to begin with. Do you want SCOTUS to allow Congress to do even less work and take even less accountability than they currently do?
 

Jhhnn

IN MEMORIAM
Nov 11, 1999
62,365
14,681
136
Which again is why I said it should be fixed via new federal law. I know it's frustrating when SCOTUS seems like they're dodging the question when the Constitution or federal law doesn't speak to a subject, but the alternative is worse. For example, the constitution doesn't really give guidance for what the 5th amendment phrase "public use" means in the clause "nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation." Instead of punting on the issue (properly) so that federal law could be enhanced to define it, instead the SCOTUS decided for all of us to become super-legislators and write the law themselves for what "public use" meant with their atrocious Kelo v. City of New London decision. We're all worse off because of it since the ruling essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law. If the case of gerrymandering, they could have likewise decided to become wanna-be legislators and decided for us all what the law should be - I'm guessing you would have been a lot more unhappy if the "law" they created from whole cloth contained a lot of provisions you dislike.

The ruling on gerrymandering essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law as well. They green lighted gerrymandering.
 
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glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
The ruling on gerrymandering essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law as well. They green lighted gerrymandering.

How did them saying "there's no federal law for us to rule on here" foreclose the possibility of fixing it? If anything it's the exact opposite, if they had ruled on it and created "new law" then Congress wouldn't have any ability to fix it with new federal law. That doesn't mean whatever law Congress passed might not be subject to judicial review, but that's a different question.
 
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Indus

Lifer
May 11, 2002
10,395
7,035
136
The ruling on gerrymandering essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law as well. They green lighted gerrymandering.

I think the only fixes is by states themselves and it will not be easy. Just look at PA.
 

senseamp

Lifer
Feb 5, 2006
35,787
6,195
126
The ruling on gerrymandering essentially forecloses the possibility of fixing it with federal law as well. They green lighted gerrymandering.
Systemic issues aren't usually solved within the system, at least without an external stress to it. The people of those states aren't putting any external stresses on their political systems that I am aware of.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
And Wisconsin, North Carolina.........

At the federal level I doubt there's much of a perceived net gain in allowing unlimited gerrymandering from both sides, so I do think a bipartisan consensus could be formed to prohibit some of the more egregious practices. If the positive advantage gained by GOP in NC is offset by advantages gained by Dems in WI then it's a zero sum game with both sides losing public confidence that elections are fair and honest. I'm guessing some of the more widely accepted "best practices" like compactness, continguity, etc. could be agreed to by both sides since neither inherently helps either side.
 

dank69

Lifer
Oct 6, 2009
35,578
29,273
136
At the federal level I doubt there's much of a perceived net gain in allowing unlimited gerrymandering from both sides, so I do think a bipartisan consensus could be formed to prohibit some of the more egregious practices. If the positive advantage gained by GOP in NC is offset by advantages gained by Dems in WI then it's a zero sum game with both sides losing public confidence that elections are fair and honest. I'm guessing some of the more widely accepted "best practices" like compactness, continguity, etc. could be agreed to by both sides since neither inherently helps either side.
I expect the GOP to approach this rationally, the way they approach every other policy decision these days.
 

glenn1

Lifer
Sep 6, 2000
25,383
1,013
126
I expect the GOP to approach this rationally, the way they approach every other policy decision these days.

Yeah Congress sucks and so does the levels of hyper partisanship nowadays. It's still better than Congress completely abdicating the rest of its lawmaking powers to SCOTUS because "it's too hard" to write law about something like gerrymandering.
 

IronWing

No Lifer
Jul 20, 2001
69,493
27,782
136
I’m not, I’m saying the principle of one person one vote is violated when it is rendered effectively impossible for that vote to achieve its desired outcome.
The only way to achieve that outcome would be voting at large for every legislative post and implementing proportional representation, effectively abolishing districts.
 
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