Originally posted by: JustAnAverageGuy
Originally posted by: RossMAN
I'll wait and see if anyone can figure it out, I'll reply later
Please AT financial guru's do not let me down!
If it's balance transfer he'll be fine.
If it's purchases, he's screwed because he'll still be paying interest on the transferred debt. Correct?
Correct and I have to partially amend my previous post. Payments are always first allocated to the HIGHER INTEREST RATE instead of the lower. This shouldn't be a big deal since the purchases will be $1/mo but let's say he buys a $300 TV and does a balance transfer for $5,000.00 at 0% for 12 months.
If you make a payment of less than $300 you're screwed. After your due date, the remaining unpaid principal balance on the "purchase" ($300 TV) will begin accruing interest at a higher rate and the decline begins.
I have two credit cards I use solely for balance transfer, that's it, nothing else. Since payments are first allocated to purchases, this can screw you over.
You should be fine assuming these are $1 purchases and you pay enough.