- Nov 18, 2004
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No sense covering up what the point I'm eventually getting at with analogies and such as I'm sure everyone can see straight through those.
Anyway today we were discussing in my class getting a job in various countries. A lot of the older Korean and Japanese women brought up how it is harder for them to get a job because employers know that they are likely to get pregnant and thus require a pregnancy leave, whereas an equally qualified male would not need this.
Obviously the question is is this or is this not equality?
Now I'm sure if two equally qualified men applied for a position but one of them (lets say man B) says that 3 years down the road he will require a 6 month leave of absence, however man A makes no such demand, the choice to hire man A would seem a reasonable and equitable choice.
Does that extend to this situation though?
Disclaimers:
1) No point bringing up that not all women will get pregnant, we already know that, but I promise you NO men will be getting pregnant.
2) Please no throwing around the word "sexist" that would just stifle real discussion.
Anyway today we were discussing in my class getting a job in various countries. A lot of the older Korean and Japanese women brought up how it is harder for them to get a job because employers know that they are likely to get pregnant and thus require a pregnancy leave, whereas an equally qualified male would not need this.
Obviously the question is is this or is this not equality?
Now I'm sure if two equally qualified men applied for a position but one of them (lets say man B) says that 3 years down the road he will require a 6 month leave of absence, however man A makes no such demand, the choice to hire man A would seem a reasonable and equitable choice.
Does that extend to this situation though?
Disclaimers:
1) No point bringing up that not all women will get pregnant, we already know that, but I promise you NO men will be getting pregnant.
2) Please no throwing around the word "sexist" that would just stifle real discussion.