Math Question

Nov 19, 2004
152
0
0
Can somone give me the answers to this and a brief explanation on how to do it?

Thanks.. sorry.. i'm really in desperate need of help and there is no better place than this.

take the infinite integrals of these three things

(a) f(x)=EXP(-(X^2))

(b) f(x)=(X^2)EXP(-(X^2))

(c) f(x)=(X^N)EXP(-(X^2)) (N=1,2,...)
 

TuxDave

Lifer
Oct 8, 2002
10,571
3
71
a) There is not indefinite integral solution (without resorting to numerical computations) to solve that. However, there is one thing you can use. The equation is in the form of a gaussian distribution and in one form the infinite integral equals 1. You gotta find that other equation and figure out what's the difference between that and part a.
 
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