Men could be convicted of rape 'even if the woman agrees to have sex

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sixone

Lifer
May 3, 2004
25,162
4
61
How is that even possible? The agreement was pulling out. How could he have broken that agreement before he even put it in?

The agreement was made before they started having sex. After they started, he informed her that he was going back on his word.
 

HamburgerBoy

Lifer
Apr 12, 2004
27,112
318
126
The agreement was made before they started having sex. After they started, he informed her that he was going back on his word.

So in other words, you're agreeing with me that the agreement was broken after they started having sex.
 

alkemyst

No Lifer
Feb 13, 2001
83,967
19
81
So in other words, you're agreeing with me that the agreement was broken after they started having sex.

That's fair game though. Anyone can agree to sex and then decide to not want it to continue.

I don't understand where people are clueless on this.
 

SheHateMe

Diamond Member
Jul 21, 2012
7,251
20
81
She told him not to finish inside of her. She had sex with him on the condition that he would not do this....

Consensual sex can turn into rape (non-consensual).

Thats like a woman consenting to sex with you and then you force anal sex upon her against her will. That's rape.

He had no right to violate her like that. She said NO. And he forcibly finished inside of her anyway.


Is the morning after pill not available / legal in the UK?

Maybe she doesn't believe in contraception. Maybe she's catholic. You have no idea.
 
Last edited:

HamburgerBoy

Lifer
Apr 12, 2004
27,112
318
126
She told him not to finish inside of her. She had sex with him on the condition that he would not do this....

Consensual sex can turn into rape (non-consensual).

Thats like a woman consenting to sex with you and then you force anal sex upon her against her will. That's rape.

He had no right to violate her like that. She said NO. And he forcibly finished inside of her anyway.

No, it's more like (assuming he didn't physically prevent her from getting him out of her) the guy saying "Hey, I'll pay you $500 after this is all over" and then saying "haha just kidding".
 

DrunkenSano

Diamond Member
Aug 8, 2008
3,892
490
126
So it's not okay for a guy to go back on his word of ejaculating in a girl because she doesn't want to get pregnant but it's okay for a girl to lie to a guy about being on birth control and end up getting pregnant? This is some serious bullshit.

And this sounds like a breach of contract instead of rape. Rape means not wanting to have sexual intercourse. She wanted the sex, just not the baby.
 

sixone

Lifer
May 3, 2004
25,162
4
61
I said that he broke the agreement after they started. steve wilson said he broke the agreement before they started. How is that in any manner agreement?

No, he said:

He broke the agreement made before they started having sex.

He even clarified what he said, by providing an analogy in the next sentence. But you didn't read that carefully, did you?
 

mitchelt

Senior member
Feb 3, 2000
781
1
76
What if the agreement was he had to give her 2 orgasms before he ejaculated and he only gave her one?
 

sixone

Lifer
May 3, 2004
25,162
4
61
So it's not okay for a guy to go back on his word of ejaculating in a girl because she doesn't want to get pregnant but it's okay for a girl to lie to a guy about being on birth control and end up getting pregnant? This is some serious bullshit.

And this sounds like a breach of contract instead of rape. Rape means not wanting to have sexual intercourse. She wanted the sex, just not the baby.

Who said that? Link, please?

She wanted the sex to stop before he ejaculated. If he kept having sex with her at that point, it's rape. And probably breach of contract, too.
 

nehalem256

Lifer
Apr 13, 2012
15,669
8
0
She told him not to finish inside of her. She had sex with him on the condition that he would not do this....

Consensual sex can turn into rape (non-consensual).

Thats like a woman consenting to sex with you and then you force anal sex upon her against her will. That's rape.

He had no right to violate her like that. She said NO. And he forcibly finished inside of her anyway.

And if a guy had sex with a woman ON THE CONDITION SHE WAS ON BC and she lied would anyone call that rape?

Correct. These are both the exact same situation. A woman lying about using birth control introduces a foreign substance into your body without your consent.

In both case consent to sex was based on a condition that was not fulfilled. So in both cases the consent was not valid.

It sounds like what you are really arguing is that sex with a man without his consent is not rape.
 

DrunkenSano

Diamond Member
Aug 8, 2008
3,892
490
126
Who said that? Link, please?

She wanted the sex to stop before he ejaculated. If he kept having sex with her at that point, it's rape. And probably breach of contract, too.

Whenever a guy gets a girl pregnant, the responsibility is his, even if she told him that she was on the pill or some sort of medical birth control and lied. No court would ever rule in the favor of a man and he will indeed be paying child support.

Rape wouldn't even come into the question.
 

sixone

Lifer
May 3, 2004
25,162
4
61
Whenever a guy gets a girl pregnant, the responsibility is his, even if she told him that she was on the pill or some sort of medical birth control and lied. No court would ever rule in the favor of a man and he will indeed be paying child support.

Rape wouldn't even come into the question.

So there's no link? You're just posting stuff that has nothing to do with the story?
 

DrunkenSano

Diamond Member
Aug 8, 2008
3,892
490
126
It has everything to do with the story. The story is that the woman didn't want to get pregnant, not that she didn't want sex. So this isn't an act of rape. Just like if a guy doesn't want to get a girl pregnant but wants sex, he isn't raped either if the girl gets pregnant. It's as simple that. However, in the end, if pregnancy is a result, it is still both parties responsibility.

Not sure what's so confusing for you?
 

HamburgerBoy

Lifer
Apr 12, 2004
27,112
318
126
No, he said:



He even clarified what he said, by providing an analogy in the next sentence. But you didn't read that carefully, did you?

Well, it's grammatically ambiguous (I didn't read it that way), but...

Example 1: Man makes agreement on mortgage with bank. Man later breaks agreement.

Example 2: Man makes agreement on contraception with woman. Man later breaks agreement.

I don't see what context can be gathered from that to make your interpretation of his post any more obvious than mine. That said, it is a bad analogy regardless being that a written contract has much more legal weight than a mere promise.
 

sixone

Lifer
May 3, 2004
25,162
4
61
It has everything to do with the story. The story is that the woman didn't want to get pregnant, not that she didn't want sex. So this isn't an act of rape. Just like if a guy doesn't want to get a girl pregnant but wants sex, he isn't raped either if the girl gets pregnant. It's as simple that. However, in the end, if pregnancy is a result, it is still both parties responsibility.

Not sure what's so confusing for you?

She did, in fact, want sex up to but not including the point of ejaculation. That was the agreement they made. After they started, he told her he wasn't going to stop. That IS rape.

Avoiding pregnancy may have been her motivation, but it's in no way relevant to the question of whether it was rape.
 

HamburgerBoy

Lifer
Apr 12, 2004
27,112
318
126
Yes, it was. But the context should have cleared up any confusion you had.

The context of the analogy only supports my conclusion.

I interpreted his post as "He broke the agreement made, before they started having sex", you interpret it as "He broke the-agreement-made-before they-started-having-sex". Fine. Now carry that over to his response to slayernine's analogy. I read it as "You are breaking the agreement, after taking out the mortgage", in the same grammatical context as my interpretation of the op's story. By comparison, you should therefore read it as "You are breaking the-agreement-[made]-after-taking-out-the-mortgage", which is obviously nonsense being that the agreement was made with the bank before the mortgage was agreed upon. By his last sentence, "He is being done for rape... so you will be done for not paying the mortgage!" he only confirms that he considers the two as equals, both being cases of violation of previously made agreements.
 
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