busmaster11
Platinum Member
- Mar 4, 2000
- 2,875
- 0
- 0
Please explain.
Again, your reasoning does not reveal itself to me. One does not need to be sovereign over something in order to prove its existence.
Why restrict yourself to the 20th century? Also, this line of thought will lead nowhere as I predict you will say that man does not always fully understand God's moral absolutes if you are given an example that shows that man has committed genocide in accordance with God's teachings (or what they believe to be God's teachings).
By the way, you're supposed to prove that I'm a morally bankrupt, craven weasel of a man who won't hesitate to do evil if I think I can get away with it. Do tell.
EDIT: clarified ambiguity in wording
Again, propose me a test which will prove it to you and I'll be more than happy to prove either of those things we discussed. I'll wait.
I believe man can fully know God's moral commandments - it is in the Bible.
The 20th century part was based on the context in answering your question in regards to a discussion with CT.
Any genocide committed at the hands of "Christians" did not come from the Word of God. Man abused it for their own prideful ends. If you step outside the context of this discussion I think that makes sense to you. But what texts did we abuse to end up with the holocaust? eh?
I'll say it again. I don't aim to persuade. But for the record, I do believe that you are "a morally bankrupt, craven weasel of a man who won't hesitate to do evil if you think you can get away with it." But I also know that of myself, and my family and friends and everyone else in the world.
EDIT: the italics was not edited but quotes and bolding were added to make apparent that the comments were tongue-in-cheek verbatim copies of what Howard said.
Its ludicrous not to know that about ourselves. It's profoundly human. Its the foundation for all the tabloids, talk shows, Hollywood reality and voyeuristic shows... Western culture really...
Last edited: