dullard
Elite Member
- May 21, 2001
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Basically, that was what I was referring to. Although, you posted a yearly inflation adjustment, while you can adjust to it monthly instead.How does that work in the European or Japanese markets where inflation has gone negative at points in the past few years...
Edit: So I googled an inflation calculator. Plugging in US$ 1500 in 2000 equals about $2100 in 2016. Wonder if it can be inflation-adjusted that simply.
http://www.bls.gov/data/inflation_calculator.htm
The Mar 24, 2000 S&P high close was 1527.46. The CPI-U data for Mar 2000 was 171.2. For June 2016 it was 240.236. Thus, the CPI-U went up 240.236 / 171.2 - 1 = 40.325% in that time. 1527.46 * (1 + 40.325%) = 2143.4. Today's S&P close of 2137.16 was a numerical high, but not an inflation adjusted high. It is 6.2 points or 0.29% too low. Note: this all assumes that July 2016 inflation numbers are unchanged from June 2016.
With deflation, you do the same thing, but the numbers drop instead of increase.