- Feb 23, 2005
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This is frequently a hotly debated subject so I'm opening a thread on it.
Instead of opening with an explicit argument I think I'll state my position and ask a few questions hoping to stimulate some responses.
I think the existence of a putative being with foreknowledge necessarily excludes the possibility of meaningful free will.
But what does "foreknowledge" mean, exactly?
I know some religious persons believe that omniscience only means "knowing all that is knowable," allowing that the future remains indeterminate to even a being with this kind of omniscience. Is that a Biblical position?
What is "knowledge," anyway? The common meaning in philosophy is "justified, true belief." In what way could foreknowledge be considered justified and true?
Anyone wanna jump in here?
Instead of opening with an explicit argument I think I'll state my position and ask a few questions hoping to stimulate some responses.
I think the existence of a putative being with foreknowledge necessarily excludes the possibility of meaningful free will.
But what does "foreknowledge" mean, exactly?
I know some religious persons believe that omniscience only means "knowing all that is knowable," allowing that the future remains indeterminate to even a being with this kind of omniscience. Is that a Biblical position?
What is "knowledge," anyway? The common meaning in philosophy is "justified, true belief." In what way could foreknowledge be considered justified and true?
Anyone wanna jump in here?
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