Originally posted by: Confused
I've got to say, I'm VERY impressed that this thread has received so many replies without ANY flaming or personal insults, and we've had two very interesting discussions going (plane and 0.999... = 1)
Seconded.
Mugs, how you've managed to put up with all those 'it won't move' posts is admirable!
Also, to the people discussing the infinite power conveyer, as has been said already, the question states it matches the planes speed. Therefore ANY talk of high speed conveyer actually proves it can take off, as for the conveyer to be going high speed, so must the plane. not the plane's wheels. the plane. As was also discussed earlier, you can't argue that the conveyer matches the plane's wheel speed, as this leads to, well frankly a bit of a cock up.
Hence, if you wish to continue to argue that the plane can't take off, then I'd advise dropping that argument, as that is not relevant to this question. If you wish to start a new question saying "if an infinitely powerful conveyer that provides infinite friction was used, could it stop a plane taking off?" then feel free. But the arguement of conveyer going at huge speed is irrelevant.
Any mention of the conveyer going at any speed other than zero, merely proves that the plane can take off, as it is moving. The question clearly states the conveyer speed is identical to the speed of the plane. This cannot refer to the wheels as a paradox is encountered.
Hence, the only way you can prove the plane couldn't take off, is by somehow proving that the conveyer can oppose the thrust of the engines. The only way it can do this, is by friction. As if it starts moving, then the plane can take off, as it is moving, and thus you've shown that it can move, and so the rolling resistance can be overcome.
Say the friction of the conveyer was sufficiently high to prevent the wheels from turning, effectively glueing them. Tto form an equation for this using physics and any rough estimates at even the largest plane's mass, and the rough corresponding forward thrust from its engines, produces a coefficient of friction that is too high to be considered anything other than fantasy, let alone something that could be created using the rubber from the tyres and whatever material the conveyer is made from.
Please can this end soon? Hehe, it's fun though.
I think i've seen a way of combining the 0.999... = 1 and the OP!!
So, for the conveyer to have any effect different from a normal runway, it must be moving, correct? Correct.
OK, so for it to be moving, so must be the plane. As stated. Correct? Correct.
So, it has speed. Let us say this speed is 0.000000................1 mph. Well, that is equal to 0, so let us instead say it has speed 0.000000000.....2 mph.
So, one must conclude therefore that it has accelerated from 0, rest, to 0.000........2 mph.
To get to 0.000......2mph, it accelerated, from 0, to 0.000..1mph, to 0.00.....2mph
Therefore, it can accelerate. It can overcome the force produced by the conveyer. In fact, for the conveyer to produce any force different to a normal runway (from which a plane can take off ALSO ), the plane must first overcome that force.
In essence, the question answers itself. I'd say it is worded fantastically.
Please, I do not see how this can be argued further? The conveyer speed matches that of the plane. Not the wheels, the plane. If you argue the conveyer has any speed, and thus any input into this question, then you have accepted that the plane is moving.
For the plane to move, it must have overcome the input of the conveyer. The input of the coneyer is governed by the planes speed. The plane will have taken off long before the conveyer reaches any real speed at which rolling resistance could even possibly be considered. The plane cannot reach a speed where rolling resistance from the wheels could be considered. Planes just can't go that fast. Even if it could reach such a speed, aerodynamic drag would have annihilated it by then. Not to mention friction.