Here's the Supremacy Clause
This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the constitution or laws of any state to the contrary notwithstanding.
So are you saying the bill of rights is not part of the constitution?
Yes, the Constitution is the supreme law of the land, and all governments, federal and state, are bound by it. But what does the Constitution say about which provisions apply to which governments? That is the question which the supremacy clause does not answer.
The SCOTUS decided this question in 1833, Barron v. Baltimore:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barron_v._Baltimore
In a nutshell, the court said that since the Constitution specifically puts limitations on the states' powers in Article 1, Section 10, had the framers intended the limitations in the Bill of Rights to apply to the states, the amendments would have said so. The court also points out that the First Amendment says that "Congress shall make no law," referring to the U.S. Congress. The presumption was that the Bill of Rights applied only to the federal government, and that interpretation has never been challenged by anyone, ever. It wasn't until adoption of the 14 Amendment that the SCOTUS decided that the Bill of Rights now applied to the states.
Ron Paul opposes incorporation of the Bill of Rights. Think about that. If the Bill of Rights already applied to the states before incorporation by way of the 14 amendment, then what is there to oppose? Nothing.
Seriously, just give it up before digging yourself further into a hole.
- wolf