so why is it exactly do we pay for insurance?
just in case something possibly might happen. its a lot like a house mortgage. seems affordable and smart to do, but in reality youre really paying 3x the cost of what youre protecting.
so why is it exactly do we pay for insurance?
so why is it exactly do we pay for insurance?
so why is it exactly do we pay for insurance?
So Progressive is not representing the defendant but they can defend them? /very confusing
I wonder if Progressive tried to settle but the family refused, thus court time.
In effect, Progressive was being sued on the under/uninsured motorist coverage by having the family suing the under/uninsured motorist.
That is the means of determining the amount Progressive would be required to pay.
In a sense, Progressive ceased being the decedent's insurer and became the under/uninsured motorist's insurer and, thus, provided a defense to the lawsuit.
MotionMan
To me it is a conflict of interest to defend the guy since they have a stake in this.
Ok but from the OP:
"Based on the Progressive policy Katie had purchased, Progressive was required to pay the difference."
It goes on to say they had to establish negligence which they had to sue to do so in order to get this claim. The OP also states it's clear that the guy ran a red light.
So what I got from it is:
Guy runs red light, hits girl
Guy is underinsured, pays a paltry amount
Girl also had insurance that pays the difference
Insurance company requires establishment of negligence
Family sues to establish this
Insurance company defends the defendant
But if from the top, the guy runs a red light, I don'd know what negligence is if that isn't. To me it is a conflict of interest to defend the guy since they have a stake in this.
Let me clarify why this happened. Maryland is a contributory negligence state. What this means is that if the jury finds that the plaintiff (the deceased) was even 1% liable for the accident, she is barred from recovering against the defendant.
Well, that causes this to make even more sense.
MotionMan
What most people don't understand about intersection accidents where one party fails to obey a traffic sign/light is that this party is not automatically the only party to blame. Technically speaking, the other party with the green light still has a duty to make sure the intersection is clear before proceeding. The legalese is that a green light is not an unqualified signal to go. What this means is that the person with the green light can still be negligent.
46 states (I believe) have comparative negligence and measure out what percentage of fault the plaintiff has versus the defendant to determine how liability is assessed. Thus, if plaintiff with the green light is found to be 1% negligent in a comparative state, she gets 99% of the damages she is able to prove.
However, in a contributory negligence state (such as Maryland), if plaintiff is found 1% negligent, she gets nothing. Juries hate this so if they truly felt plaintiff was 1% negligent they would most likely just ignore contrib and find for the plaintiff.
If Progressive could show plaintiff was even 1% liable, under contrib defendant is legally not liable to her and Progressive does not have to pay out under the UIM provision.
If Progressive could show plaintiff was even 1% liable, under contrib defendant is legally not liable to her and Progressive does not have to pay out under the UIM provision.
That's horrible.. so if a car going down a residential street at 100mph hits me as I'm crossing, I probably get nothing because I didn't look both ways closely enough
Doesn't insurance pay out even if you are at fault?
Wouldn't progressive be responsible for paying out damages even if the sister was completely at fault in her own death?
If progressive has to pay when the UIM is 100% at fault, and progressive has to pay when the progressive insured driver is at fault, why wouldn't progressive have to pay if the fault is shared between the two of them?
Doesn't insurance pay out even if you are at fault?
Wouldn't progressive be responsible for paying out damages even if the sister was completely at fault in her own death?
If progressive has to pay when the UIM is 100% at fault, and progressive has to pay when the progressive insured driver is at fault, why wouldn't progressive have to pay if the fault is shared between the two of them?
Do any of the articles explain what "the difference" means? Are these unpaid medical bills?Based on the Progressive policy Katie had purchased, Progressive was required to pay the difference.
Sounds like what we need is insurance for insurance not paying a claim. Then we also need to buy that same insurance from the insurance company not paying the claim so that if either party renegs for any ridiculous reason, you get a payout. This is the world we live in people. Get used to it. :\
Based on the Progressive policy Katie had purchased, Progressive was required to pay the difference.
Do any of the articles explain what "the difference" means? Are these unpaid medical bills?
No and no.
Not in Maryland (and a few other states).
MotionMan
My understanding is that UIM only kicks in if the other driver is at fault and has either no coverage or insufficient coverage. So no, you don't get UIM if it is all your fault. Your insurance agent will never tell you this of course.
Ok but from the OP:
"Based on the Progressive policy Katie had purchased, Progressive was required to pay the difference."
It goes on to say they had to establish negligence which they had to sue to do so in order to get this claim. The OP also states it's clear that the guy ran a red light.
So what I got from it is:
Guy runs red light, hits girl
Guy is underinsured, pays a paltry amount
Girl also had insurance that pays the difference
Insurance company requires establishment of negligence
Family sues to establish this
Insurance company defends the defendant
But if from the top, the guy runs a red light, I don'd know what negligence is if that isn't. To me it is a conflict of interest to defend the guy since they have a stake in this.