Argument with some friends about this, my view is that piracy isn't worth it in the long run but some friends use the following when I hit them with the 'losing money' arguement.
Ok so I'm not going to deal with the moral or legal aspects of pirating games....most people agree that it's wrong and illegal so that's that.
But I'm curious as to why, say for example, Microsoft could claim to be losing money or be harmed in any way by the following:
A person sees that XBOX or playstation games are copyable with the right know-how and so decides to buy an XBOX and do whatever needs to be done to it to make the games copyable. This person then rents games and copies them. He buys a few add-ons for the machine so that he can play with some friends. he doesn't bother with the online element of the machine.
So assuming that the person in question would NEVER have bought an XBOX or any games or any peripherals if the games weren't copyable. Hence MS would never had made money on this guy anyway, so what do they lose if there was NEVER any buying potential there?
MS loses some money on each console bought and hopes to regain that in the purchase of games and this person is never going to buy games so bingo they lose some money. But don't they only lose money up and until the console starts shipping in higher numbers? And either way, if this guys buys 3 extra MS controllers I'm sure that will go some way to lessening the loss MS made in the sale of the console.
The game producers? Well they would never have sold a game to this guy anyway and the game was rented and returned so do they lose out?
I'm stumped but I'd LOVE to have a killer point that would prove my friends wrong. What's missing in the above equation? Remember...this isn't a moral or legal arguement....on those fronts I've won every arguement!
Ok so I'm not going to deal with the moral or legal aspects of pirating games....most people agree that it's wrong and illegal so that's that.
But I'm curious as to why, say for example, Microsoft could claim to be losing money or be harmed in any way by the following:
A person sees that XBOX or playstation games are copyable with the right know-how and so decides to buy an XBOX and do whatever needs to be done to it to make the games copyable. This person then rents games and copies them. He buys a few add-ons for the machine so that he can play with some friends. he doesn't bother with the online element of the machine.
So assuming that the person in question would NEVER have bought an XBOX or any games or any peripherals if the games weren't copyable. Hence MS would never had made money on this guy anyway, so what do they lose if there was NEVER any buying potential there?
MS loses some money on each console bought and hopes to regain that in the purchase of games and this person is never going to buy games so bingo they lose some money. But don't they only lose money up and until the console starts shipping in higher numbers? And either way, if this guys buys 3 extra MS controllers I'm sure that will go some way to lessening the loss MS made in the sale of the console.
The game producers? Well they would never have sold a game to this guy anyway and the game was rented and returned so do they lose out?
I'm stumped but I'd LOVE to have a killer point that would prove my friends wrong. What's missing in the above equation? Remember...this isn't a moral or legal arguement....on those fronts I've won every arguement!