Originally posted by: Mursilis
No, judicial activism is a court failing to apply or uphold the law in favor of some social trend or idea of 'social justice'. That's the problem many strict constructionists have with things like affirmative action - while we can debate AA as social policy all day, how is it legal if the Constitution is supposed to provide equal protection?
Here's how.
The tax system has a special credit for the blind. Isn't that *unequal* and therefore unconstitutional? Why should a blind person get it, but not you?
In fact, some 'strict constructionists' might try to make that argument.
If you were blind, you could get the credit. Hence, it's equal at the level of 'everyone has the right to the credit if the ygo blind'. That's an alternative form of equality.
It'd be another matter if, say, blacks or women or gays were ineligible for the credit if blind. Then those people are denied 'equal protection'.
Similarly, handicapped parking spots treat one group differently than another. The casualty'theft tax decustion treats people differently (only people who had those losses get the credit). Only people who get broken legs get the government spending for doctors to provide them care - no broken leg, no care. Again, if that were 'only white people with a broken leg', we'd have a problem with equal protection.
The people of one town get great benefit when the federal government builds a highway through their town, but the people of another town don't. If the reason they chose the first town was rational and fair, that's ok, they don't have to build highways in every town. But if the reason was that the second town is mostly black people, it's not ok. They're denied equal protection.
Why are all these drawing the line at that point? It's the line of there being some rational, defensible reason for the different treatment. The equal protection is *not* a guarantee everyone gets the same benefits, as shown above. Rather, it's that no one is denied the benefits *for inappropriate reasons*.
When one group is seen to be significantly disadvantaged, and there's reason to suspect discrimination as a cause - current or past with lingering effects - the government has decided and the courts have agreed that there can be a legitimate cause for providing assistance to the affected group.
This is not the same as individual cases of discrimnation, where specific acts are proven, this is the government looking at a community and saying "blacks are 50% of the population but only 20% of the workforce at the big employer; to get things back onto track, some measures will be taken to counter the effects of the past policies that have led to this situation'. There is equal protection in that people who are in the group that is underrperesented.
If there's a group of whites in a black-run racist town who are so affected, they'd have the same rights. But there isn't such a group.
You and Bill, a black man, are both after a position. Bill, as a black man, is part of a group that is very underrepresented because of discrimination. Perhaps Bill's father, grandfather, great-grandfather and great-great grandfather were limited by not being allowed to live in black neighborhoods for decades, not being allowed education, not being allowed higher paying positions, while your family line had those options. The bottom line effect is that there is a widespread inequity today, ahd the government takes action to improve that.
It might mean that Bill gets an advantage so that the 50% of the people who are black have closer to 50% of the positions, if Bill is qualified.
The courts have reviewed this issue in depth and there are guidelines, and they've said it's not a violation of equal protection unless it exceeds the guidelines.