CZroe
Lifer
- Jun 24, 2001
- 24,195
- 856
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Ugh. You keep editing and I keep having to respond to your edits too.
See my previous reply.So the explanation is that it's an old-school method based from old school typing. So now it is "totally, completely, utterly, and inarguably wrong". No, I don't understand. Not a requirement and completely wrong are 2 different things. It seems like someone just got up one day and made a hardened rule just because it is no longer used. What makes them the authority to call it completely wrong, seriously?
Uh, no. I did not use my Technical Writing course to state that it was wrong. You attempted to use technical writing to prove that it was right. I took that rug from under you and used a different argument for why it was wrong. Got it?And you should just drop the "technical writing" course thing from your argument. Clearly they did not state it was wrong to you and that's your whole purpose here.
I'm pointing out that we should probably use the comma in all formal writing subject to the discretionary judgement of someone else.So are you pointing out that teachers are right or is the optional oxford comma wrong?