Originally posted by: KMDupont64
http://www.csh.rit.edu/~pat/math/quickies/epii/
http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/51921.html
yeah we all know e^(i*pi) = -1 but the damn OP is saying that e^z = 0 and it's possible to solve for z, and we are all scratching our heads.