The most interesting math problem I've seen in a long time

[coomar]

the limit as z goes to zero is defined as 1
i think you were thinking about limit as z goes to negative infinity

 

[eits]

oops... actually, what i meant was "(lim z -> 0)i*pi"

 

[tikwanleap]

Originally posted by: eits
oops... actually, what i meant was "(lim z -> 0)i*pi"

wtf?

if you want to use lim, it should be:

lim z -> negative infinity.

 

[musicman87]

anyone got a ti-92 platinum on them? (solve e^z=1,z)

 

[coomar]

what is e^(1/pi)?

 

[musicman87]

what is my favorite color?

 

[tikwanleap]

Originally posted by: coomar
what is e^(1/pi)?

According to google calculator...

http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&lr=&q=e%5E%281%2Fpi%29+%3D

e^(1 / pi) = 1.37480223

 

[tikwanleap]

Originally posted by: musicman87
what is my favorite color?

brown?

 

[MrDudeMan]

Originally posted by: musicman87
anyone got a ti-92 platinum on them? (solve e^z=1,z)

lol ti-92...

and dont you think at least 1 of the several EEs in this thread have tried methods like that?

 

[coomar]

i could bust out maple though i'm fairly certain it will come out with gibberish

 

[MBrown]

has someone firgured it out yet?

 

[Soccer55]

Originally posted by: MBrown
has someone firgured it out yet?

Many of us agree that there is no solution to this problem. So yes, we've figured it out, but we would like to see Eeezee's solution since he claims that a solution exists.

-Tom

 

[JASANITY]

Originally posted by: dullard

Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Heh. Nice. The slopes of the two triangular pieces aren't the same. The slope of the red one is 3/8 while the slope of the green one is 2/5.

Right, the big combination is NOT a triangle. Overlap the two pictures and you'll instantly see where the "hole" material went.

that is sweet. a slight difference in the slope = square hole.

 

[letdown427]

The only way it could work is if e doesn't equal the function we're all inclined to think of, but that he has just decided that e is a variable f his own choosing.

people have already explained why e^z != 0 and they're correct.

for e^z = 0 , e = 0 while z !=0

why z != 0? because, in another interesting maths thing,0, and everything else ^0, = 1. yes, 0^0 = 1

 

[Aharami]

Originally posted by: OdiN
42

haha

 

[JRich]

Originally posted by: eits

Originally posted by: So

Originally posted by: ShadoWing
um.....z=1?

e^1 = e.

haha someone failed math

Watch out! He'll sue!!

 

[Eeezee]

Originally posted by: Aharami

Originally posted by: OdiN
42

haha

Yes!

 

[thecrecarc]

i dont get it

 

[ShadowBlade]

z=-infinity+6.28341417718*@n1*i

csolve function FTW

 

[tikwanleap]

Originally posted by: Eeezee

Originally posted by: Aharami

Originally posted by: OdiN
42

haha

Yes!

ban.

 

[IHateMyJob2004]

Originally posted by: tikwanleap

Originally posted by: Eeezee

Originally posted by: Aharami

Originally posted by: OdiN
42

haha

Yes!

ban.

ban

 

[JustAnAverageGuy]

Proof

NO SOLUTION, it's an asymptote

 

[silverpig]

Originally posted by: JustAnAverageGuy
Proof

NO SOLUTION, it's an asymptote

That's not a proof...

 

[JustAnAverageGuy]

Originally posted by: silverpig

Originally posted by: JustAnAverageGuy
Proof

NO SOLUTION, it's an asymptote

That's not a proof...

I don't care

 

[coomar]

Originally posted by: JustAnAverageGuy
Proof

NO SOLUTION, it's an asymptote

thats on the real axis, the solution people were proposing as possible would have been on the imaginary axis

there should be a way to prove its not possible by contradiction