ivwshane
Lifer
- May 15, 2000
- 32,517
- 15,399
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Feel free to address what I asked above.
The point is, with zero evidence that GZ acted in an offensive nature at any time, why on earth would anyone even remotely entertain the idea that TM wasn't the one who started the physical portion of the altercation? Sure... it's "possible", but what could possibly make it plausible?
Reading comprehension isn't your thing is it? You cannot prove either scenario with the evidence available.