What has a greater odd?

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xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
except YOUR odds (you the fucking person in possession of the tickets) is 175,711,535 in 175,711,536 each ticket is a separate event yes, however they are all brought together by you the singular owner making YOUR odds almost 100% of winning, each individual ticket wont get increased odds you as a person do.

Chance, not odds, yet again. Odds for a lottery is calculated from the pick of the numbers, not the amount of tickets. All you have done is make your chance be the inverse of your odds, quite expensively I might add.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,143
30,099
146
But then the odds are getting to where someone else is going to pick the same combination.

But that never would have mattered, right?

being able to approach a 40-50% chance of winning doesn't guarantee what you will win, just that you will likely win.

I think the important thing to consider is cost/benefit, diminishing returns on purchasing lottery tickets, something like that.

I want to say there was an example, some time, of some dude realizing that with a a certain chance of winning a 100mill jackpot, he only needed to spend 40mil on tickets to "win."

He "won," but ended up making far less than what was expected. god, that story was horrible...I need to try and find a link, lol.
 

DominionSeraph

Diamond Member
Jul 22, 2009
8,386
32
91
But then the odds are getting to where someone else is going to pick the same combination.

If the odds of winning don't improve with the purchase of more tickets (your claim), and as valuation is subjective we can arbitrarily call anything a "win" (including having two people pick the same combination), then how would the odds of having someone else pick the same number increase the more tickets you have? In order for that to happen your odds of "winning" have to increase!

Pwnt.

Hard.

Up the ass.

/Too easy.
 

Jaepheth

Platinum Member
Apr 29, 2006
2,572
25
91
The tickets are not independent events. If we KNOW that one ticket is a loser, then the probability of a different ticket being a winner goes up (slightly). The only "event" is the drawing.

Each drawing is independent of past and future drawings. So buying into the lottery frequently doesn't increase your chances or odds of winning any given drawing, but buying multiple tickets for a single drawing does increase your probability of winning.

Probability, odds, and chance are different ways of expressing the same information. If you have a single 6 sided die, and you bet on 1 number you have a 1/6 (.16666....) probability of winning, a 16.6666% chance of winning, and a 1:5 odds of winning.
 
Feb 6, 2007
16,432
1
81
Do you know what Gambler's Fallacy actually is?
Obviously he doesn't. He's conflating increasing your odds of winning in a single lottery drawing to continually buying lottery tickets to different drawings since "I've lost the last 300 drawings, so this week, I've GOT to win!" The latter is the gambler's fallacy; the former is just poor math from someone who doesn't realize that 175 million to 1,000 is not significantly better than 175 million to 1.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,143
30,099
146
Obviously he doesn't. He's conflating increasing your odds of winning in a single lottery drawing to continually buying lottery tickets to different drawings since "I've lost the last 300 drawings, so this week, I've GOT to win!" The latter is the gambler's fallacy; the former is just poor math from someone who doesn't realize that 175 million to 1,000 is not significantly better than 175 million to 1.

Isn't it also: "I play the same number every time, because each time it doesn't win, there is a better chance that it will win the next draw."
 
Feb 6, 2007
16,432
1
81
Isn't it also: "I play the same number every time, because each time it doesn't win, there is a better chance that it will win the next draw."
Yup. Anything where you find yourself saying "it didn't happen last time, so I'm due." Which is not the same as spending more money to increase your odds in a single contest.
 

Cerpin Taxt

Lifer
Feb 23, 2005
11,940
542
126
Yummy, I loves me some tasty ownage! So nice of y' all to serve up such a healthy dose of it in this thread.
 

xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
Yup. Anything where you find yourself saying "it didn't happen last time, so I'm due." Which is not the same as spending more money to increase your odds in a single contest.

Which is exactly what you are doing here. "I can't win on one ticket, but I perhaps could win with 10 tickets." Nope, sorry, you still only won with the one ticket so the other 9 were pointless. Each ticket consists of a single wager. Nine more wagers doesn't make all 10 anymore likely to win.
 

busydude

Diamond Member
Feb 5, 2010
8,793
5
76
Which is exactly what you are doing here. "I can't win on one ticket, but I perhaps could win with 10 tickets." Nope, sorry, you still only won with the one ticket so the other 9 were pointless. Each ticket consists of a single wager. Nine more wagers doesn't make all 10 anymore likely to win.

I don't think this makes any sense to anyone other than the poster.
 

TheSlamma

Diamond Member
Sep 6, 2005
7,625
5
81
Social security has been "going away" for decades.. it's still around for soem reason
 

Capt Caveman

Lifer
Jan 30, 2005
34,543
651
126
Obviously he doesn't. He's conflating increasing your odds of winning in a single lottery drawing to continually buying lottery tickets to different drawings since "I've lost the last 300 drawings, so this week, I've GOT to win!" The latter is the gambler's fallacy; the former is just poor math from someone who doesn't realize that 175 million to 1,000 is not significantly better than 175 million to 1.

Correct. The fact that he doesn't even understand the difference between buying 1000 tickets in different combinations for a single lottery to Gambler's Fallacy is sad. But it's funny how he keeps trying to compare the two.
 

xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
If you roll a six sided die what are the odds of rolling a 2? 1 in 6 right. Now lets say that you now have 1-5 as your numbers. What are the odds of rolling a 2 now? You are all saying 5 in 6 but you odds are still 1 in 6. You have an 83% chance of hitting your number but the odds are still 1 in 6 that its going to be that 2 that you need. Betting on 4 more numbers didn't change the odds of a 2 happening.
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
Which is exactly what you are doing here. "I can't win on one ticket, but I perhaps could win with 10 tickets." Nope, sorry, you still only won with the one ticket so the other 9 were pointless. Each ticket consists of a single wager. Nine more wagers doesn't make all 10 anymore likely to win.

You can't be this stupid and misunderstand the simple concept of Gambler's Fallacy any worse.

It means:
"Last 5 coin toss was head, so next one is due for tails!" Wrong because each toss is independent.

Gambler's Fallcy does not apply when playing ONE FIXED DRAWING of lottery and buying multiple tickets. How can you not grasp this simple thing?

If I buy 2 tickets, I have indeed doubled the chance of winning than you having one.

If I buy 10 tickets, I have 10 times the chance to win.

The only reason this doesn't work is because of sheer nil probability of winning. If I buy 2 tickets, my chance went up from 0.00000000000000000001% to 0.000000000000000002%. It's just financially unsound vs payout.

How about a direct example?
Let's say I have 10 cups hiding 1 coin. That's 10% chance. If I'm granted to guess 2 cups at ONCE, I have 20% chance SINCE THE REVEAL IS PLAYED ONCE. That's same as lottery, but with trillions of cups. Each ticket increases your chances accordingly.
 
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xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0

Yep you are correct, your chance of winning goes up. The odds of hitting the number are the exact same however. You are using chance correctly. Others were using odds incorrectly.
 

BoberFett

Lifer
Oct 9, 1999
37,562
9
81
If you roll a six sided die what are the odds of rolling a 2? 1 in 6 right. Now lets say that you now have 1-5 as your numbers. What are the odds of rolling a 2 now? You are all saying 5 in 6 but you odds are still 1 in 6. You have an 83% chance of hitting your number but the odds are still 1 in 6 that its going to be that 2 that you need. Betting on 4 more numbers didn't change the odds of a 2 happening.

You really should just quit while you're behind.

In your own example, you don't need a 2. You need a 1-5.
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
If you roll a six sided die what are the odds of rolling a 2? 1 in 6 right. Now lets say that you now have 1-5 as your numbers. What are the odds of rolling a 2 now? You are all saying 5 in 6 but you odds are still 1 in 6. You have an 83% chance of hitting your number but the odds are still 1 in 6 that its going to be that 2 that you need. Betting on 4 more numbers didn't change the odds of a 2 happening.

I have no idea wtf you're saying here. The dice is rolled ONCE for this lottery, and it's trillions sided.

If I buy 5 tickets to guess 1, 4, 387, 98980983, 55. I have 5x the chance to win than you picking 1 number with 1 ticket. The dice is rolled ONCE.

Gambler's fallacy does not apply.
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
Yep you are correct, your chance of winning goes up. The odds of hitting the number are the exact same however. You are using chance correctly. Others were using odds incorrectly.

WTF? Chance and odds are same thing. What are you smoking?

And your usage of Gambler's Fallacy is 100% wrong. Stop it.
 

busydude

Diamond Member
Feb 5, 2010
8,793
5
76
You are all saying 5 in 6 but you odds are still 1 in 6. You have an 83% chance of hitting your number but the odds are still 1 in 6 that its going to be that 2 that you need.

No just no. Nobody said that. The odds of getting a 2 is 1 in 6(EDIT: 1 in 5), but the odds of winning the roll is 5 in 6(5 in 1).
 
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Capt Caveman

Lifer
Jan 30, 2005
34,543
651
126
Yep you are correct, your chance of winning goes up. The odds of hitting the number are the exact same however. You are using chance correctly. Others were using odds incorrectly.

:biggrin:

Assumption - The lottery numbers are only drawn once

Odds of Winning with 1 ticket = 1 in 176 million
Odds of Winning with 1000 tickets = 1000 in 176 million

Again, you don't understand Gambler's Fallacy.
 
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