What has a greater odd?

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zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,143
30,099
146
Yes it does, if you make all of them the same numbers.

so, if you are the only jackpot winner, and you win on 1000 identical tickets, is the jackpot then divided among those 1000 individual winning tickets?

Would this reduce your overall tax on those much smaller individual payouts, thus gaming the tax?


:hmm:
 

xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
Well that doesn't seem fair that they could sell the same series of numbers on different machines to different people, even though of course no one would know the exact series until the drawing. Couldn't they also sell the same sequence of numbers in quick picks across several states thus increasing their odds of no one being a winner?

Its all randomly generated by a computer, they don't have control over it. I am sure they want more of the same numbers to be picked but they don't have a say in that happening, even with the quick picks.

Think about it. For it to be completely unique every time, each machine in every location would have to know what numbers had been already picked and then randomly somehow pick a new unique number. That would take forever and it would be exponentially longer the more tickets you sold.
 

mnewsham

Lifer
Oct 2, 2010
14,539
428
136
So assuming what I said is correct then is it guaranteed by the lottery commission that if I buy 176,000,000 quick pick tickets, that they will all be unique combinations? Or can they replicate them?

since it is all random then of course you can get a duplicate you would need to manually fill out number cards for every combination since a random number generator (quick pick) would eventually give you a duplicate series.
 

zinfamous

No Lifer
Jul 12, 2006
111,143
30,099
146
OK, this thread needs a little boost to hit legendary status--like 0.99999 = 1 and plane on a treadmill.

Meaning, we need more ATers ITT displaying self-ownage and math retardation.

Thus, I am now in agreement with xBiffx.



---------


You guys are fucking insane. It's the Monty Hall problem, obviously: No earlier outcome (individual lottery ticket, or each successive ball pulled in drawing) will have any effect on the next ticket or ball pulled.

So, clearly--you dumbsticks--You are stuck with 1000 individual, identical odds of winning.
DUH!
 

xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
so, if you are the only jackpot winner, and you win on 1000 identical tickets, is the jackpot then divided among those 1000 individual winning tickets?

Would this reduce your overall tax on those much smaller individual payouts, thus gaming the tax?


:hmm:

Sorry but they all come back to one number in the end, your SSN in this case.
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
Bold answers above.
Wow.

Since you're so well educated on this delusion. Tell me this:

6 sided dice, you get to pick 1
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 5 (1:5)
2. What is the chance of winning? 16.7%

1 million sided dice, you get to pick 20
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 999,999
2. What is the chance of winning? 0.002%

WTF, I'm going to directly show you where you are wrong. If you still don't get it, you are beyond hopeless.

If I'm PICKING 20 out of 1 million, why is it 1 to 999,999? That's for picking 1 out of 1,000,000.


It's either 20 to 999,999 or 1 to 49,999 (999,999 divided by 20 because odds went up by picking 20 times for 1 draw).


Your math is not even consistent within your own calculation. It's fubar all around.

1. Odds and chances are SAME THING with different expression (repeating for the third time).

2. And this has NOTHING to do with gambler's fallacy.

3. And your own math is fail.

Triple fail.
 
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GrumpyMan

Diamond Member
May 14, 2001
5,780
264
136
I've always thought that they were all hooked up to a main lotto server where this is computed so everyone could get a fair shake. See there, that's why I suck a gambling, I just don't trust the house not to scam me, in today's world what people say are just random events, may not be so random. (Grumpy puts on tin foil hat with a propeller attached).
 
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xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
WTF, I'm going to directly show you where you are wrong. If you still don't get it, you are beyond hopeless.

If I'm PICKING 20 out of 1 million, why is it 1 to 999,999? That's picking 1 out of million.


It's either 20 to 999,999 or 1 to 49,999 (999,999 divided by 20).


Your math is not even consistent within your own calculation. It's fubar all around.

Odds are a representation of ways to win : ways to lose. You only have one way to ever win the lottery but there are 999,999 ways to lose. Odds are not given in percentage. The chance is a ratio of possible ways of winning to ways to play. You have given yourself 20 possibilities but there are still 1,000,000 ways to play. This is normally a fraction or percentage.
 
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mnewsham

Lifer
Oct 2, 2010
14,539
428
136
Odds are a representation of ways to win : ways to lose. You only have one way to ever win the lottery but there are 999,999 ways to lose. Odds are not given in percentage. The chance is a ratio of possible ways of winning to ways to lose. You have given yourself 20 possibilities but there are still 999,980 ways to lose. This is normally a fraction or percentage.

do you honestly care this much about it that you are going against what 5+ people are telling you is right?
 

mb

Lifer
Jun 27, 2004
10,233
2
71
lmao I like how people keep calling out biff on how he was wrong about the Gambler's Fallacy and he just ignores it and continues to post the same stupid math over and over thinking he is right.
 

Dr. Zaus

Lifer
Oct 16, 2008
11,764
347
126
You guys are fucking insane. It's the Monty Hall problem, obviously: No earlier outcome (individual lottery ticket, or each successive ball pulled in drawing) will have any effect on the next ticket or ball pulled.

So, clearly--you dumbsticks--You are stuck with 1000 individual, identical odds of winning.
DUH!

OK YES AND

Since .99999999 is 1 and your probability of losing the loto with any 1 ticket is 1 -
.99999999 * 100 = percent chance to win.

but since .99999999 = 1 a quick substitution gives us

1 - 1 * 100
(because there are no parenthesis we ignore PEDMAS)
so we get 0 * 100, which is still zero.


What about multiple tickets?
Formula:
1 - .99999999*X * 100 = percent chance to win.
.99999999 = 1
1 - 1 * X * 100 = percent chance to win.
(because there are no parenthesis we ignore PEDMAS)
0*X*100= percent chance to win.
Anything time zero is zero
0 = percent chance to win.

Which is what was to be demonstrated.

Different proof, same conclusion.

Where's your evidence? YOU AN'T GOT ANY.
 

xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
do you honestly care this much about it that you are going against what 5+ people are telling you is right?

The whole time they have been arguing that you can change the odds but you can't. You can increase your chances but the odds have nothing to do with tickets. Arguing semantics but words have different meaning.
 

mnewsham

Lifer
Oct 2, 2010
14,539
428
136
The whole time they have been arguing that you can change the odds but you can't. You can increase your chances but the odds have nothing to do with tickets. Arguing semantics but words have different meaning.

So basically you are saying "I'm a stuck up wise and beautiful woman who can't accept what others tell me and refuse to budge from the grey area in which I reside" Fine. Have fun

-leaves thread-
 

Juked07

Golden Member
Jul 22, 2008
1,473
0
76
Ahahahahahahaha... sigh. Can't tell if I should laugh at biff's hilarious trolling or be sad that he's serious.
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
Odds are a representation of ways to win : ways to lose. You only have one way to ever win the lottery but there are 999,999 ways to lose. Odds are not given in percentage. The chance is a ratio of possible ways of winning to ways to lose. You have given yourself 20 possibilities but there are still 999,980 ways to lose. This is normally a fraction or percentage.

6 sided dice, you get to pick 1
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 5 (1:5) (your answers)
2. What is the chance of winning? 16.7% (your answers)

1 to 5 (1 win pick, 5 fails) is same is 1 in 6 winning = 1/6 =16.7%.

1 million sided dice, you get to pick 20
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 999,999 (your answers)
2. What is the chance of winning? 0.002% (your answers)

1 to 999,999 is same as 1 in 1,000,000 winning = 1/1,000,000 = 0.0001%

Where the hell did the correct 0.002% come from from your first wrong math? Your MATH IS INTERNALLY WRONG.

1 to 50,000 IS 0.002% you thick headed idiot.


If I bought 20 fucking tickets, I have 20 times (2000%) the chance than 1 ticket.

1. You feel too damn stupid now to admit your total failure rambling about about Gambler's Fallacy (which you are now conveniently ignoring).

2, You are wrong all around. You MUST be trolling.


Total dumbass idiot. I'm done here.
 
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xBiffx

Diamond Member
Aug 22, 2011
8,232
2
0
6 sided dice, you get to pick 1
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 5 (1:5) (your answers)
2. What is the chance of winning? 16.7% (your answers)

1 to 5 is same is 1 in 6 winning = 1/6 =16.7%.

1 million sided dice, you get to pick 20
1. What are the odds of winning? 1 to 999,999 (your answers)
2. What is the chance of winning? 0.002% (your answers)

1 to 999,999 is same as 1 in 1,000,000 winning = 1/1,000,000 = 0.0001%

Where the hell did the correct 0.002% come from from your first wrong math? Your MATH IS INTERNALLY WRONG.

1 to 50,000 IS 0.002% you thick headed idiot.


If I bought 20 fucking tickets, I have 20 times (2000%) the chance than 1 ticket.

You feel too proud to admit your total idiocy about Gambler's Fallacy (which you are conveniently ignoring).

You are wrong all around. You MUST be trolling.

1 to 5 odds is not the same as 16.7% chance of winning. Sorry but odds are not a percentage. Yep, your chance does go up but the odds that a ticket wins stays the same as has been said before. You are only going to win once with those twenty unique tickets so odds of you winning are 1 to 999,999.

Odds tell you the ratio that a winning event occurs to a loosing event.
Chance tells you the fraction of the time you can expect to see an event.
 
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Juked07

Golden Member
Jul 22, 2008
1,473
0
76
1 to 5 odds is not the same as 16.7% chance of winning. Sorry but odds are not a percentage. Yep, your chance does go up but the odds that a ticket wins stays the same as has been said before. You are only going to win once with those twenty unique tickets so odds of you winning are 1 to 999,999.

Odds tell you the ratio that a winning even occurs to a loosing event.
Chance tells you the fraction of the time you can expect to see an event.

Troll troll troll...

There's just no other way
 

Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
1 to 5 odds is not the same as 16.7% chance of winning. Sorry but odds are not a percentage. Yep, your chance does go up but the odds that a ticket wins stays the same as has been said before. You are only going to win once with those twenty unique tickets so odds of you winning are 1 to 999,999.

Odds tell you the ratio that a winning even occurs to a loosing event.
Chance tells you the fraction of the time you can expect to see an event.

Wrong.

You buy 20 tickets, of course the odds of each ticket stays the same. Because they're EACH TICKETS. But you bought 20 of them, therefore you as a 20-ticket holder has increased ODDS.

And how about that Gambler's Fallacy? Hmm? You're real fucking quiet about that one.
 
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Phoenix86

Lifer
May 21, 2003
14,644
10
81
1 to 5 odds is not the same as 16.7% chance of winning. Sorry but odds are not a percentage. Yep, your chance does go up but the odds that a ticket wins stays the same as has been said before. You are only going to win once with those twenty unique tickets so odds of you winning are 1 to 999,999.

Odds tell you the ratio that a winning event occurs to a loosing event.
Chance tells you the fraction of the time you can expect to see an event.
So...

Wanna play cards? :sneaky:
 

Farmer

Diamond Member
Dec 23, 2003
3,334
2
81
xBiffx:

You never pick the same number. You're assuming the picks are independent and I guess random, they're not if you're not a moron.

According to your logic, if I bought every possible number combination, my chances/odds of winning would remain unchanged. In reality, it would be 1.
 
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Zeze

Lifer
Mar 4, 2011
11,395
1,180
126
Troll troll troll...

There's just no other way

When someone is so vested in this stupidity then realizes how wrong he was, the typical defensive human psyche will act 2 ways:

1. Admit he's wrong (not likely, esp this far and online).

2. Say he was trolling all along.

We know the answer to this. He is either too god damn stupid understand a simple math explained by many here or fake it as trolling.

Either way we lose. I'm officially done here.
 
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