You guys are fucking insane. It's the Monty Hall problem, obviously: No earlier outcome (individual lottery ticket, or each successive ball pulled in drawing) will have any effect on the next ticket or ball pulled.
So, clearly--you dumbsticks--You are stuck with 1000 individual, identical odds of winning.
DUH!
OK
YES AND
Since .99999999 is 1 and your probability of losing the loto with any 1 ticket is 1 -
.99999999 * 100 = percent chance to win.
but since .99999999 = 1 a quick substitution gives us
1 - 1 * 100
(because there are no parenthesis we ignore PEDMAS)
so we get 0 * 100, which is still zero.
What about multiple tickets?
Formula:
1 - .99999999*X * 100 = percent chance to win.
.99999999 = 1
1 - 1 * X * 100 = percent chance to win.
(because there are no parenthesis we ignore PEDMAS)
0*X*100= percent chance to win.
Anything time zero is zero
0 = percent chance to win.
Which is what was to be demonstrated.
Different proof, same conclusion.
Where's your evidence? YOU AN'T GOT ANY.