Are those implied?
:hmm:
What both of you failed to understand is that the odd resets with new drawing, not if you bought all the tickets for a single drawing.
Wrong. No matter what number comes up, I win. 1 play, 38 chips, 1 guaranteed win.38 chips on 38 squares doesn't change that you only win on 1 square. You have given yourself 37 chances to lose and 1 to win. Thus your odds of wining are 1 to 37.
They are precisely one.You odds are not one at all.
The odds are 1 to 0.No such things as 1 odds (its a representation, not a decimal), only 1 for chance.
I don't lose. No matter what number comes up, I have it covered. Thus, I win.If there is no way to lose then your odds are X to 0. This means that for every way to win there is no way to lose.
Wrong. No matter what number comes up, I win. 1 play, 38 chips, 1 guaranteed win.
They are precisely one.
The odds are 1 to 0.
I don't lose. No matter what number comes up, I have it covered. Thus, I win.
Sure you can. Just lay more chips.You can't increase the odds in roulette.
That would mean that you are increasing your ways to win or reducing your ways to lose. That wouldn't be fair. All players have the same odds of wining no matter what they do. What they can do is increase their chances by betting on more than one number but their is penalty for doing this. For every extra chance you give yourself to win, you have also given yourself a chance to loose. And that is because the odds didn't change. You didn't add another way to win, you just payed for one of the other ways to lose. You still only get paid for one of your numbers.
Sure you can. Just lay more chips.
It seems you are using an uncommon definition of "win." Any time the winning result is among your plays, you have won. You have selected the winning number among your picks. You're trying to treat each number as if they are played by different people. If 38 people each played unique numbers, then they'd each have 1 to 37 odds. When I play all 38 squares, I have 1 to 0 odds. I am guaranteed to hold the winning number when the result is produced.
Good point, better go out and buy $1,000 worth of tickets right now.
Doesn't change your odds of winning. Gamblers fallacy.
Chances and odds are exactly the same. I just took a discrete math course, and basically your chances/odds of winning do increase with every set of numbers you purchase... although 1/200 million and 2/200 million is a very, very marginal difference.
A hit is a win. Period. You're just equivocating now because according to your original terms, you're wrong.I agree on the win definition. I should switch to hit because in your scenario you are never going win any money even though you hit your number everytime.
I increased MY odds of winning BY increasing my chances. I didn't increase the odds of any particular square, but you're still conflating these two events.I don't disagree for a second that you will hit everytime by playing 38 numbers. But you didn't do it by increasing the odds, you did it by increasing your chance.
The odds that I played the winning number is 1. Thus, I won.Odds does not tell you how often you are going to hit, ever. Chance tells you this. Odds just tells you how many time you can hit to how many times you can miss. You played 38 numbers so your chance of winning was 1 but you still hit once but missed 37 times.
A hit is a win. Period. You're just equivocating now because according to your original terms, you're wrong.
I increased MY odds of winning BY increasing my chances. I didn't increase the odds of any particular square, but you're still conflating these two events.
The odds that I played the winning number is 1. Thus, I won.
False.odds have nothing to do with tickets.
Thistrollthread is ascending to legendary status.
This is my last attempt.My original terms haven't changed other than replacing win with hit so I'm not doing anything different. You can't change the ways to win no matter what you do at roulette. You are saying that you can. You have only covered every possible way to win but that hasn't changed how many ways there are to win.
This is my last attempt.
Suppose that after every spin of the wheel, the house puts the names of the player(s) who picked the winning number up on a screen. Those names that appear on the screen are the winners.
If I place 1 chip on one square, the odds of my name appearing on the screen are 1 to 37.
If I place chips on 38 squares, the odds of my name appearing on the screen are 1 to 0.
Thus, I can change my odds of being a winner by placing more chips.
That's the bottom line. The other chips that did not accomplish putting my name on the screen are not relevant. You are a winner when the result is among your picks.
Yeah.... I think the discussion has come down to semantics.
Yeah.... I think the discussion has come down to semantics.
But even by accepting his semantics he's wrong.Yeah.... I think the discussion has come down to semantics.
False.
Your odds of winning the prize is directly related to the number of tickets purchased.
Why?
Because when you purchase a ticket (quick-pick) you have a 1 in 170m-ish chance of getting a number that's already been drawn by someone else. This means that you have diminished the likely hood of someone winning the pot: as defined by not splitting the pot.
agan
Purchasing a ticket influences the odds of winning the prize by creating a 1 in 170m chance that you have forced someone into a split, this means if you don't win the pot instead you only win part of the pot.
So
every ticket you purchase reduces the overall odds of winning the pot
Yeah.... I think the discussion has come down to semantics.
the definition of "winning number" is that number that wins the pot, not splits the pot.No. Odds are calculated based on the winning number, not the number of tickets.
I think I have said this twice.