Originally posted by: psteng19
Originally posted by: amnesiac 2.0
I'd inquire as to whether you have ever taken a basic Economics course, but the profound stupidity of your statement leads me to revise my question.
Are you retarded?
No I haven't, so could you please enlighten me on why it wouldn't work.
I'm sorry I'm not as smart and as knowledgeable as you are.
iirc, in economics a model called the "utilization maximum"(sp) helps to predict the
efficiency of a economy based on a few things like productivity, technology, labor force etc... However, in modern times, the size of the labor force(or perhaps hours of work) is becoming less and less paramount than say the other factors like technology, productivity.
As to prices for goods being 1/5 as costly, it could happen, it only makes sense if you spend more income on leisure services(longer weekend) you have less for the durable type goods like TVs, computer, so IF all things equivalent, goods would likely costs alittle less than before.